Cell Cycle and Cell DivisionNEET MCQs with solutions
Cell Cycle and Cell Division follows a cell through interphase, mitosis and meiosis. NEET loves this chapter for its stage-by-stage events and its counting questions — how many chromosomes and DNA molecules a cell has at each phase.
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- 11 Biology
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Practise 24 questions
Tap an option to check it. Questions from every NCERT topic in this chapter, from easy to hard.
Q1Cell Cycle Overview
The term "proliferating cells" refers to cells that
Not quite — the answer is A.
Proliferating cells are those continuously passing through the cell cycle — G1 → S → G2 → M — and actively dividing. Options B and C describe non-proliferating cells. Enucleation (Option D) is irrelevant to division status.
Q2Cell Cycle Overview
In a diploid organism with 2n = 4, how many DNA molecules are present during G2 phase?
Not quite — the answer is D.
After S phase, each of the 4 chromosomes has 2 sister chromatids each containing 1 DNA molecule → 4 × 2 = 8 DNA molecules. Option A (4) confuses DNA molecule count with chromosome number — the most frequent error here.
Q3Cell Cycle Overview
A cell that fails to cross the restriction point in G1 will most likely
Not quite — the answer is B.
The restriction point is the G1 gate — failure to cross it (due to insufficient growth factors or DNA damage signals) results in exit into G0. The cell does not proceed to S phase, G2, or necessarily undergo apoptosis at this stage.
Q4Cell Cycle Overview
In a diploid cell with 2n = 4, DNA content changes from 2C to 4C during
Not quite — the answer is B.
DNA content doubles from 2C to 4C exclusively during S phase due to semiconservative replication. G2 phase follows replication — DNA content is already 4C at G2 entry. Option C (G2) is the most common wrong answer here.
Q5Cell Cycle Overview
The decision of a cell to either proceed with division or withdraw into G0 is primarily made at the restriction point located in
Not quite — the answer is D.
The restriction point (R point) in late G1 is the critical decision gate — if growth signals are adequate, the cell commits to S phase; if not, it exits to G0. This is distinct from the G2/M checkpoint which operates later.
Q6Cell Cycle Overview
A metabolically active cell that has exited the cell cycle and is not preparing for division is said to be in
Not quite — the answer is A.
G0 is the quiescent stage where cells remain metabolically active but have exited the proliferative cycle. Critically, G0 cells are not "dead" — they perform normal functions. Only specific signals can return them to G1.
Q7Interphase Deep Analysis
In a species with 2n = 6, how many DNA molecules are present during G1 phase?
Not quite — the answer is D.
In G1, replication has not occurred; each chromosome consists of one double-stranded DNA molecule, giving 6 DNA molecules for 6 chromosomes. Option A (12) is the post-S phase value and is the trap.
Q8Interphase Deep Analysis
DNA replication during S phase ensures which of the following outcomes in daughter cells?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Replication produces two identical genome copies (sister chromatids) so that after division each daughter cell inherits a complete genetic complement. Option D is a common misconception — ploidy does not change because chromosome sets remain diploid; only DNA amount temporarily doubles.
Q9Interphase Deep Analysis
At which checkpoint is a cell assessed for adequate size and favourable growth conditions before committing to DNA replication?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The G1/S checkpoint (restriction point) is the primary decision point where a cell commits to S phase only if size, nutrient status, and growth signals are adequate. Passing this point is largely irreversible. Option A (G2/M) monitors DNA integrity before mitosis, not growth readiness.
Q10Interphase Deep Analysis
Which of the following best describes the primary molecular activity that distinguishes G2 phase from G1 phase?
Not quite — the answer is C.
G2 is characterized by synthesis of tubulin, condensins, and other proteins needed for mitosis — not DNA replication (that occurred in S). Option D (MCM loading) occurs in G1, not G2. This concept is commonly confused with S phase functions.
Q11Mitosis
Which of the following events correctly characterises telophase?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Telophase reverses prophase events: chromosomes decondense into chromatin, nuclear envelope reforms around each chromosome set, and nucleolus reappears. Centromere division is anaphase; chromosome alignment is metaphase; spindle fibres depolymerise (not polymerise) in telophase.
Q12Mitosis
Kinetochore is best described as
Not quite — the answer is A.
Kinetochore is a disc-shaped proteinaceous structure assembled on the centromere of each chromatid. It is the direct attachment site for kinetochore microtubules and is essential for chromosome movement during anaphase. MTOCs (centrosomes) organise spindle formation — distinct from kinetochore function.
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Get RankUp on Google PlayQ13Mitosis
In plant cells, a functional mitotic spindle forms despite the absence of
Not quite — the answer is B.
Plant cells lack centrioles (and thus asters) yet assemble a fully functional anastral spindle using other microtubule-organising proteins. This is a key NEET trap — centrioles are not universally required for spindle formation, only for aster formation.
Q14Mitosis
Which of the following events during mitosis ensures that each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genome?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Precise alignment of chromosomes at the metaphase plate ensures that when centromeres split and chromatids migrate in anaphase, each pole receives one copy of every chromosome — this is the molecular basis of genetic constancy in mitosis.
Q15Mitosis
In a diploid cell with 2n = 10, what is the total chromosome count in the cell during anaphase?
Not quite — the answer is D.
When centromeres split at anaphase onset, each chromatid becomes an independent chromosome. A 2n=10 cell has 10 chromosomes (20 chromatids) at metaphase; after splitting, 20 individual chromosomes are present — 10 moving to each pole. The count returns to 10 per daughter cell after division.
Q16Mitosis
The mitotic spindle fibres originate from which structure?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Spindle fibres originate from centrosomes, which migrate to opposite poles during prophase. Kinetochores are attachment sites on chromosomes where spindle fibres bind — they do not generate fibres. Nucleolus disappears during prophase and plays no role in spindle formation.
Q17Mitosis
At metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes are arranged at the
Not quite — the answer is D.
During metaphase, chromosomes align at the equatorial plane called the metaphase plate, equidistant from both poles. Centrosomes are at the poles; kinetochores are on chromosomes; the nuclear membrane has already disintegrated.
Q18Meiosis
If a diploid cell with 2n = 16 undergoes meiosis I, each daughter cell has how many chromosomes?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Meiosis I halves chromosome number: 2n = 16 → n = 8. Each chromosome still consists of two chromatids at this stage. Option A (16) is the pre-division diploid count — the most common error.
Q19Meiosis
Which of the following correctly distinguishes Meiosis II from Meiosis I in terms of what separates at anaphase?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Anaphase I separates homologous chromosomes (reductional); anaphase II separates sister chromatids (equational, like mitosis). Reversing these (Option B) is the most frequently tested meiosis trap in NEET.
Q20Meiosis
During anaphase I, what happens to the centromeres?
Not quite — the answer is A.
In anaphase I, centromeres do NOT divide — homologous chromosomes (each still with two chromatids) move to opposite poles. Centromere splitting (Option B) occurs in anaphase II, not anaphase I. This distinction is a top NEET trap.
Q21Meiosis
In diplotene stage, homologous chromosomes begin to
Not quite — the answer is D.
In diplotene, the synaptonemal complex dissolves and homologs begin to separate. However, they remain held together only at chiasmata — the physical sites of earlier crossing over. Synapsis (Option A) belongs to zygotene, not diplotene.
Q22Meiosis
Meiosis produces four haploid cells. Which of the following most precisely explains this outcome?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Meiosis produces four haploid cells because two successive divisions occur with only one round of DNA replication (before meiosis I). The absence of replication between meiosis I and II is the precise reason four — not two — genetically distinct haploid cells result. Option A is the classic high-frequency NEET trap.
Q23Meiosis
In leptotene stage of Prophase I, chromosomes
Not quite — the answer is D.
In leptotene, chromosomes begin condensation and become visible as thin thread-like structures. Crossing over occurs in pachytene, equatorial alignment in metaphase I, and centromere splitting occurs in anaphase II, not leptotene.
Q24Meiosis
Synapsis between homologous chromosomes occurs during
Not quite — the answer is A.
Synapsis — the intimate pairing of homologous chromosomes — begins in zygotene, facilitated by the synaptonemal complex. Pachytene follows zygotene and is the stage of crossing over. Diplotene marks the beginning of synaptonemal complex dissolution.
ELITE question · AIR under 50 level
This chapter has 63 ELITE questions for students aiming at the very top. They are only in the app.
Unlock ELITE questions in the appStage-by-stage revision
Quick revision: most questions in this chapter test these facts.
| Stage | What happens |
|---|---|
| Duration | Human cell cycle about 24 hours (mitosis about 1 hour); yeast about 90 minutes |
| G1 phase | Cell grows and is metabolically active; no DNA replication |
| S phase | DNA doubles (2C → 4C) but chromosome number stays the same; centriole duplicates in animal cells |
| G2 phase | Proteins for mitosis are made; cell keeps growing |
| G0 phase | Quiescent stage — cells stay active but stop dividing, e.g. heart cells |
| Prophase | Chromosomes condense; nucleolus, nuclear envelope, Golgi and ER disappear |
| Metaphase | Chromosomes on the metaphase plate; best stage to study chromosome morphology |
| Anaphase | Centromeres split; sister chromatids move to opposite poles |
| Telophase | Nuclear envelope, nucleolus, Golgi and ER reform |
| Cytokinesis | Cleavage furrow in animal cells; cell plate in plant cells; skipped in coconut liquid endosperm (syncytium) |
| Leptotene | Chromosomes start compacting |
| Zygotene | Synapsis — synaptonemal complex forms bivalents (tetrads) |
| Pachytene | Crossing over at recombination nodules, by recombinase |
| Diplotene | Synaptonemal complex dissolves; chiasmata visible; can last months or years in oocytes |
| Diakinesis | Terminalisation of chiasmata |
| Anaphase I vs II | Anaphase I: homologous chromosomes separate; anaphase II: sister chromatids separate |
| Interkinesis | Short gap between meiosis I and II; no DNA replication |
What the app covers in this chapter
635 questions in total, each with a detailed explanation.
| Cell Cycle Overview | 119 |
| Interphase Deep Analysis | 77 |
| Mitosis | 100 |
| Meiosis | 119 |
| Mixed practice and chapter tests | 220 |
Questions students ask
Is Cell Cycle and Cell Division important for NEET?
Yes. It is one of the most frequently tested Class 11 chapters. Questions ask about the events of each phase, the sub-stages of prophase I, and chromosome or DNA counts at a given stage.
Which topics should I revise first?
First learn the phases of interphase and what doubles when, then the four stages of mitosis, and finally the five sub-stages of prophase I (use the table on this page). Practise the counting questions last.
How many questions from this chapter are on RankUp?
The RankUp app has 635 questions on Cell Cycle and Cell Division, including 63 ELITE questions written for students aiming at AIR under 50. Every question has a detailed explanation.
Can I download these questions as a PDF?
Yes. The free PDF on this page has all 24 questions with the answer key and explanations. No signup is needed.
