Biotechnology: Principles and ProcessesNEET MCQs with solutions
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes covers genetic engineering tools (restriction enzymes, vectors, host cells), recombinant DNA technology steps, PCR, gel electrophoresis and bioreactors. NEET tests the specific tools (EcoRI, pBR322, Ti plasmid), the steps of rDNA technology, and diagram-based questions on vectors and cloning.
- Class
- 12 Biology
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- 24 questions
- In the RankUp app
- 534 questions
- ELITE questions
- 289
- NCERT topics
- 8
Practise 24 questions
Tap an option to check it. Questions from every NCERT topic in this chapter, from easy to hard.
Q1Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology
Which is the first step in recombinant DNA technology as described by NCERT?
Not quite — the answer is A.
NCERT lists isolation of DNA as the first step before any enzymatic manipulation can occur in recombinant DNA technology.
Q2Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology
Which chemical is used during DNA isolation to remove proteins associated with DNA?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Phenol denatures and separates proteins from nucleic acids during DNA extraction. Chloroform is used subsequently to remove phenol itself, not proteins directly.
Q3Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology
Which substance precipitates DNA from aqueous solution during DNA isolation?
Not quite — the answer is C.
DNA is insoluble in alcohol; chilled ethanol causes DNA to precipitate out of solution. Sodium chloride adjusts ionic strength but does not precipitate DNA directly.
Q4Important PYQ Mixed Concepts
Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering became practically possible mainly because of the discovery of which enzyme?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Restriction endonucleases made site-specific cutting of DNA possible, allowing DNA fragments to be isolated and recombined. DNA ligase joins DNA fragments after cutting but did not provide the original site-specific cutting capability. DNA polymerase synthesises new strands and primase synthesises RNA primers.
Q5Important PYQ Mixed Concepts
In recombinant DNA technology, the enzyme that covalently joins a foreign DNA fragment with a cut plasmid vector is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
DNA ligase seals the phosphodiester backbone between compatible DNA fragments. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific recognition sites. DNA polymerase synthesises DNA and helicase separates the two strands of double-stranded DNA.
Q6Important PYQ Mixed Concepts
Which feature of a cloning vector is most desirable for efficient insertion of foreign DNA without unnecessarily fragmenting the vector?
Not quite — the answer is C.
A cloning vector should preferably possess a single recognition site for a commonly used restriction enzyme so that insertion does not occur at multiple unwanted positions. Multiple recognition sites can fragment the vector. Absence of an origin of replication would prevent autonomous replication entirely.
Q7Competent Host and Cloning Strategies
Which organism and genetic element are exploited for natural gene transfer into plant cells in biotechnology?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Agrobacterium tumefaciens naturally transfers T-DNA from its Ti plasmid into plant cell chromosomes. This system is exploited to deliver desired genes into plant genomes.
Q8Competent Host and Cloning Strategies
Which physical method uses brief electrical pulses to create transient pores in bacterial membranes for DNA uptake?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Electroporation applies a brief high-voltage pulse that transiently disrupts the membrane, allowing DNA to enter. CaCl₂ treatment is chemical, not electrical; biolistics uses particle bombardment.
Q9Competent Host and Cloning Strategies
Which plasmid vector contains both ampicillin and tetracycline resistance genes used as selectable markers?
Not quite — the answer is B.
pBR322 carries ampR and tetR genes serving as selectable markers. pUC19 carries ampR and lacZ but not tetR. Ti plasmid is a plant transformation vector, not a standard E. coli cloning vector.
Q10Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
Which class of enzymes cuts DNA at specific nucleotide sequences during recombinant DNA technology?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Restriction endonucleases recognize specific palindromic sequences and cleave both strands of DNA, generating fragments for cloning. DNA ligase joins fragments; polymerase synthesizes; RNA polymerase transcribes — none cut at specific sites.
Q11Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
Which enzyme joins two DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides?
Not quite — the answer is B.
DNA ligase seals nicks in the sugar-phosphate backbone by catalysing phosphodiester bond formation between the 3'-OH and 5'-phosphate of adjacent nucleotides. Helicase unwinds DNA; restriction enzymes cut; polymerase extends existing strands.
Q12Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
Which feature of plasmids makes them suitable as cloning vectors in genetic engineering?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Plasmids are extrachromosomal circular DNA that replicate autonomously using the host's replication machinery — this independence from the chromosome allows the inserted gene to be maintained and multiplied. Permanent chromosomal integration would prevent controlled vector maintenance.
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Get RankUp on Google PlayQ13Grand Test
A plasmid used as a cloning vector must be able to replicate independently inside the host cell. Which vector feature directly provides this capability?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The origin of replication (ori) is the sequence from which replication of the vector begins. A selectable marker identifies transformants, a restriction site permits insertion, and a promoter controls transcription — none of these directly confer replication ability.
Q14Grand Test
Which sequence correctly represents the major stages used to amplify a target DNA segment by PCR?
Not quite — the answer is A.
High temperature first separates the DNA strands (denaturation). Primers then anneal to complementary sequences at a lower temperature, followed by extension by Taq DNA polymerase at ~72°C. Repetition of these three steps amplifies the target DNA exponentially.
Q15Grand Test
A foreign DNA fragment and a plasmid are cut with the same restriction endonuclease. Which enzyme is required to covalently join the two compatible DNA molecules?
Not quite — the answer is B.
DNA ligase forms phosphodiester bonds between adjacent DNA fragments after compatible sticky ends have associated, creating the recombinant molecule. Restriction endonuclease performs the cutting step; primase and helicase are involved in DNA replication, not ligation.
Q16Mixed Revision
Which combination correctly represents the three essential components required for efficient PCR amplification of a selected DNA segment?
Not quite — the answer is B.
PCR requires template DNA as a starting material, specific primers that define the boundaries of the target region and a thermostable DNA polymerase such as Taq that survives repeated denaturation cycles. Restriction enzymes, ligases and ribosomes are not components of PCR.
Q17Mixed Revision
Why does DNA migrate towards the positive electrode during agarose-gel electrophoresis?
Not quite — the answer is A.
DNA carries negatively charged phosphate groups in its sugar-phosphate backbone, giving it an overall negative charge. Under an electric field, negatively charged molecules migrate towards the positive electrode, the anode. Smaller fragments move faster through the gel matrix.
Q18Mixed Revision
A recombinant bacterial culture produces a desired protein in a bioreactor. The product is mixed with cells and other components. Which process should be selected to obtain a purified final product?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Downstream processing encompasses recovery, separation and purification of the desired biological product after large-scale production in the bioreactor. PCR amplification, transformation and restriction digestion are upstream molecular steps used in constructing or introducing the recombinant gene.
Q19Bioreactors and Downstream Processing
A stirred tank bioreactor is distinguished from a simple flask by which structural feature described in NCERT?
Not quite — the answer is C.
NCERT describes the stirred tank bioreactor as a cylindrical vessel fitted with an agitator (impeller) and baffles that prevent vortex formation, ensuring homogeneous mixing of cells, nutrients, and dissolved gases throughout the culture volume.
Q20Bioreactors and Downstream Processing
The impeller in a stirred tank bioreactor serves which primary function during fermentation?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The impeller generates turbulent flow that distributes oxygen, nutrients, and pH-adjusting agents uniformly throughout the vessel, preventing concentration gradients that would create microenvironments of suboptimal growth conditions.
Q21Bioreactors and Downstream Processing
A bioreactor maintains optimal microbial growth by simultaneously controlling multiple parameters. Which combination of parameters is monitored and regulated in a production bioreactor?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Productive fermentation requires simultaneous control of temperature (enzyme activity), pH (metabolic balance), dissolved oxygen (aerobic respiration), and agitation speed (mixing). Failure of any single parameter disrupts cellular metabolism and reduces product yield.
Q22Principles of Biotechnology
Which fundamental principle of modern biotechnology allows scientists to deliberately modify an organism's genome to introduce desirable traits?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Modern biotechnology rests on genetic engineering — deliberate modification of genetic material to obtain desired characteristics. Downstream processing, fermentation, and electrophoresis are tools/steps, not the founding principle.
Q23Principles of Biotechnology
Which statement best explains the universality of the genetic code in the context of biotechnology?
Not quite — the answer is C.
NCERT explains that codon-amino acid correspondence is universal across most organisms, allowing genes from one organism to function in another. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes alike use the same code — it is not restricted to any group.
Q24Principles of Biotechnology
Which example correctly represents traditional biotechnology rather than modern biotechnology?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Traditional biotechnology uses natural organisms without genetic manipulation — fermentation (alcohol, curd) is the classic example. Recombinant insulin, gene cloning, and PCR all involve deliberate gene-level intervention, placing them in modern biotechnology.
ELITE question · AIR under 50 level
This chapter has 289 ELITE questions for students aiming at the very top. They are only in the app.
Unlock ELITE questions in the appKey Tools & Steps
Quick revision: most questions in this chapter test these facts.
| Tool / Step | Key Fact |
|---|---|
| Restriction enzymes | EcoRI: cuts at GAATTC (palindromic); produces sticky ends |
| Vectors | pBR322 (ampR, tetR), Ti plasmid (Agrobacterium), λ phage |
| PCR | Denaturation (94°C) → Annealing (55°C) → Extension (72°C); Taq polymerase (thermostable) |
| Gel electrophoresis | DNA fragments separate by size (smaller = faster); stained with EtBr, seen under UV |
| Competent host | CaCl₂ treatment or heat shock for bacterial cells to take up DNA |
| Bioreactors | Stirred-tank bioreactor for large-scale rDNA protein production; downstream processing for purification |
What the app covers in this chapter
534 questions in total, each with a detailed explanation.
| Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology | 121 |
| Important PYQ Mixed Concepts | 99 |
| Competent Host and Cloning Strategies | 60 |
| Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology | 59 |
| Grand Test | 58 |
| Mixed Revision | 56 |
| Bioreactors and Downstream Processing | 41 |
| Principles of Biotechnology | 40 |
Questions students ask
Is Biotechnology Principles important for NEET?
Yes — it is a high-weightage chapter. Questions on restriction enzymes, vectors (pBR322, Ti plasmid), PCR steps, gel electrophoresis and rDNA technology steps appear regularly.
Which topics should I revise first?
Focus on restriction enzymes (EcoRI, palindromic sequences), vectors and their selectable markers, the three steps of PCR with temperatures, gel electrophoresis principle, and the complete process of rDNA technology.
How many questions from this chapter are on RankUp?
The RankUp app has 534 questions on Biotechnology: Principles and Processes, including 289 ELITE questions written for students aiming at AIR under 50. Every question has a detailed explanation.
