AIPMT 2006 Prelims Question PaperPhysics, Chemistry and Biology, with checked answers and solutions
By the RankUp team, founded by Dr. Deepak Sahu (MBBS Gold Medalist, NEET PG AIR 1731) · Updated
185 questions from the AIPMT 2006 Prelims paper, conducted by CBSE. Tap an option to check your answer and read why it is right. Each subject has a free PDF with the answer key and explanations.
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AIPMT 2006 Prelims Physics questions
39 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q3
A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-section A floats in a liquid of density ρ. If it is given a small vertical displacement from equilibrium it undergoes oscillation with a time period T. Then :
Not quite — the answer is B.
When the block is pushed down by y, the extra buoyant force is Aρgy, so it behaves like a spring of constant k = Aρg. Hence T = 2π√(m/(Aρg)), which varies as 1/√A (and as 1/√ρ, √m). T is not proportional to √ρ or 1/ρ, and it increases, not decreases, with m.
Q2AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q4
A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of source be increased so as to increase its efficiency by 50% of original efficiency ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
With the sink at 300 K, 0.4 = 1 − 300/T₁ gives T₁ = 500 K. The new efficiency is 0.4 + 0.5 × 0.4 = 0.6, so 300/T₁' = 0.4 and T₁' = 750 K. The source must be raised by 750 − 500 = 250 K; reading '50% more' as an efficiency of 90% gives an impossible value.
Q3AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q5
When a charged particle moving with velocity v⃗ is subjected to a magnetic field of induction B⃗, the force on it is non-zero. This implies that :
Not quite — the answer is C.
The magnetic force is F = qvB sin θ, which vanishes only when θ = 0° or 180°. So a non-zero force tells us only that θ is anything other than 0° and 180°. It need not be exactly 90°; 90° simply gives the maximum force.
Q4AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q6
Two cells, having the same emf, are connected in series through an external resistance R. Cells have internal resistances r₁ and r₂ (r₁ > r₂) respectively. When the circuit is closed, the potential difference across the first cell is zero. The value of R is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
The current is I = 2E/(R + r₁ + r₂). The p.d. across the first cell is E − Ir₁ = 0, so I = E/r₁. Equating: 2r₁ = R + r₁ + r₂, giving R = r₁ − r₂. Setting the second cell's p.d. to zero would give r₂ − r₁, which is negative here.
Q5AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q7
A black body at 1227°C emits radiations with maximum intensity at a wavelength of 5000 Å. If the temperature of the body is increased by 1000°C, the maximum intensity will be observed at :
Not quite — the answer is D.
By Wien's law λₘT is constant. T₁ = 1227 + 273 = 1500 K and T₂ = 2500 K, so λ₂ = 5000 × 1500/2500 = 3000 Å. Using Celsius temperatures (1227 and 2227) would give a wrong ratio; the peak must shift to a shorter wavelength as the body gets hotter.
Q6AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q9
A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and a capacitor C in series produce oscillations of frequency f. If L is doubled and C is changed to 4C, the frequency will be :
Not quite — the answer is C.
The resonant frequency is f = 1/(2π√(LC)). Replacing L by 2L and C by 4C multiplies LC by 8, so the frequency becomes f/√8 = f/(2√2). The frequency decreases; it does not increase to 8f.
Q7AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q10
The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and that of ⁴₂He is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are fused to form one ⁴₂He then the energy released is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Energy released = binding energy of products − binding energy of reactants = 28 − 2 × 2.2 = 23.6 MeV. Subtracting the binding energy of only one deuteron gives 25.8 MeV, and adding them gives 32.4 MeV, neither of which applies.
Q8AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q11
In a radioactive material the activity at time t₁ is R₁ and at a later time t₂, it is R₂. If the decay constant of the material is λ, then :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Activity decays as R = R₀e^(−λt), so R₁ = R₀e^(−λt₁) and R₂ = R₀e^(−λt₂). Dividing, R₁ = R₂e^(−λ(t₁ − t₂)); since t₁ < t₂ the exponent is positive and R₁ > R₂, as expected for the earlier time. The form with e^(λ(t₁ − t₂)) would make the earlier activity smaller.
Q9AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q12
Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. According to Bohr's theory, the spectral lines emitted by hydrogen will be :
Not quite — the answer is B.
After absorbing 12.1 eV the electron's energy is −13.6 + 12.1 = −1.51 eV, which is the n = 3 level (−13.6/9). From n = 3 the possible downward transitions are 3→2, 3→1 and 2→1, i.e. n(n − 1)/2 = 3 lines. Counting only the direct jump to the ground state would give one line.
Q10AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q13
The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm the potential energy stored in it is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Spring energy is U = ½kx², so U ∝ x². Increasing the stretch from 2 cm to 8 cm (4 times) multiplies the energy by 4² = 16, giving 16U. Assuming U ∝ x would give only 4U.
Q11AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q14
For angles of projection of a projectile at angles (45° − θ) and (45° + θ), the horizontal ranges described by the projectile are in the ratio of :
Not quite — the answer is A.
The range is R = u² sin 2θ/g. For (45° − θ), sin(90° − 2θ) = cos 2θ; for (45° + θ), sin(90° + 2θ) = cos 2θ. The two ranges are therefore equal, a ratio of 1 : 1, for any θ.
Q12AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q15
A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s in metres in it, given by the relation s = (1/3)t², where t is in s. Work done by the force in 2 s is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
From s = t²/3, v = ds/dt = 2t/3 and a = 2/3 m s⁻², so the force is F = 3 × 2/3 = 2 N. At t = 2 s, s = 4/3 m, so W = 2 × 4/3 = 8/3 J; this equals the gain in kinetic energy ½ × 3 × (4/3)² = 8/3 J. The reciprocal 3/8 J is a slip in the algebra.
Q13AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q17
The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v = at + b/(t + c), where a, b and c are constants. The dimensions of a, b and c are respectively :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Every term must have the dimensions of velocity [LT⁻¹]. From at, a = [LT⁻²]. In b/(t + c), c is added to time so c = [T]; then b/[T] = [LT⁻¹] gives b = [L]. The other choices fail the rule that only like quantities can be added.
Q14AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q18
A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be moved to get the mark in focus again ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
A slab of thickness t and refractive index μ makes the mark appear raised by t(1 − 1/μ) = 3(1 − 1/1.5) = 1 cm. Since the image of the mark is now 1 cm higher, the microscope must be raised by 1 cm. Moving it down would take it further out of focus.
Q15AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q19
300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height 10 m. Taking g = 10 m/s², work done against friction is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Work against gravity is mgh = 2 × 10 × 10 = 200 J. The remaining 300 − 200 = 100 J of the work done is spent against friction (assuming no gain in kinetic energy). Zero would be true only on a frictionless incline.
Q16AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q22
A photo-cell employs photoelectric effect to convert :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Above the threshold, the photoelectric current is proportional to the intensity of the incident light, so a photocell turns changes in illumination into changes in photocurrent. Frequency changes alter the kinetic energy of the electrons, not the current, and the work function is a fixed property of the cathode.
Q17AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q23
The core of a transformer is laminated because :
Not quite — the answer is A.
A solid iron core lets large eddy currents circulate, wasting energy as heat. Thin insulated laminations break up these current paths and minimise eddy-current loss. Lamination does not change the turns ratio, and its purpose is not to reduce weight or prevent rusting.
Q18AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q24
Two coils of self-inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective flux in one coil is completely linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these coils is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
With all the flux of one coil linking the other (coupling coefficient 1), M = √(L₁L₂) = √(2 × 8) = 4 mH. Adding the inductances (10 mH) or taking the larger one (8 mH) is incorrect.
Q19AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q25
In a discharge tube ionization of enclosed gas is produced due to collisions between :
Not quite — the answer is B.
In a discharge tube the strong electric field accelerates the free electrons, which knock electrons off neutral gas atoms or molecules and ionise them. Positive ions are heavy and gain much less speed between collisions, so they are not the main cause of ionisation.
Q20AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q26
When photons of energy hν fall on an aluminium plate (of work function E₀), photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the frequency of the radiation is doubled, the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Einstein's equation gives K = hν − E₀. At frequency 2ν, K' = 2hν − E₀ = (hν − E₀) + hν = K + hν. The kinetic energy does not simply double, because the work function is subtracted only once.
Q21AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q28
A coil of inductive reactance 31 Ω has a resistance of 8 Ω. It is placed in series with a condenser of capacitative reactance 25 Ω. The combination is connected to an a.c. source of 110 V. The power factor of the circuit is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
The net reactance is X_L − X_C = 31 − 25 = 6 Ω, so Z = √(8² + 6²) = 10 Ω. The power factor is cos φ = R/Z = 8/10 = 0.80. Using X_L + X_C would give a much smaller value; the supply voltage is not needed.
Q22AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q29
A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30° with the wall. It is reflected with the same speed and at the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the wall for 0.25 s, the average force acting on the wall is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The ball meets the wall at 30° to the wall, so its velocity component normal to the wall is 12 sin 30° = 6 m/s; this component reverses while the parallel component is unchanged. Δp = 2 × 0.5 × 6 = 6 kg m/s and F = 6/0.25 = 24 N. Using cos 30° (treating the angle as measured from the normal) gives about 41.6 N, which is not offered.
Q23AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q31
The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kg m/s, will be :
Not quite — the answer is D.
E = 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10⁻¹³ J and p = E/c = 1.6 × 10⁻¹³/(3 × 10⁸) ≈ 5.3 × 10⁻²² kg m/s. Skipping the MeV-to-joule conversion gives a meaningless number, and 5 × 10⁻²³ is off by a factor of ten.
Q24AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q32
The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of ⁹₄Be. The number of nucleons in Ge are :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Nuclear radius R = R₀A^(1/3), so doubling R needs A to increase by 2³ = 8. The Ge nucleus therefore has 8 × 9 = 72 nucleons. The other numbers are other germanium isotopes, not the one fixed by this radius.
Q25AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q33
The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is (7/2)R. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to that at constant volume is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
For an ideal gas Cv = Cp − R = (7/2)R − R = (5/2)R. Hence γ = Cp/Cv = (7/2)/(5/2) = 7/5, as for a diatomic gas. A ratio below 1 is impossible because Cp is always larger than Cv.
Q26AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q34
The earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the surface of the earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is fvₑ, where vₑ is its escape velocity from the surface of the earth. The value of f is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Escape velocity from a point at distance r from the centre is √(2GM/r). The platform is at r = R + R = 2R, so the escape velocity is vₑ/√2 and f = 1/√2. Escape becomes easier, not harder, so f cannot exceed 1.
Q27AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q35
Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0 m and 5.5 m respectively, each propagate in a gas with velocity 330 m/s. We expect the following number of beats per second :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The frequencies are 330/5.0 = 66 Hz and 330/5.5 = 60 Hz. The beat frequency is the difference, 66 − 60 = 6 per second. Adding or halving these does not give the beat count.
Q28AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q37
Kirchhoff's first and second laws for electrical circuits are consequences of :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Kirchhoff's junction law (sum of currents at a node is zero) expresses conservation of charge. The loop law (sum of potential changes round a loop is zero) expresses conservation of energy. The reverse pairing swaps the two laws.
Q29AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q38
A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is represented by : y(x, t) = 8.0 sin (0.5πx − 4πt − π/4) where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The speed of the wave is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Comparing with y = A sin(kx − ωt + φ), k = 0.5π rad/m and ω = 4π rad/s. The wave speed is v = ω/k = 4π/0.5π = 8 m/s. The value 8π m/s comes from mixing the amplitude with ω and is wrong.
Q30AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q40
Which one of the following statements is true ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Sound in air travels as compressions and rarefactions, so it is longitudinal; light is an electromagnetic wave with transverse fields. Light can travel through vacuum but sound needs a material medium, so the statement that both travel in vacuum is false.
Q31AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q41
Above Curie temperature :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Above its Curie temperature a ferromagnet loses its domain alignment because thermal agitation wins, and it behaves as a paramagnet. Curie temperature is a property of ferromagnets; paramagnets do not turn ferromagnetic or diamagnetic on heating.
Q32AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q42
A convex lens and a concave lens, each having same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a combination of lenses. The power in diopters of the combination is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The powers are +1/0.25 = +4 D for the convex lens and −4 D for the concave lens. In contact the total power is 4 − 4 = 0, so the combination acts like a plane glass plate. Zero power means infinite focal length, not infinite power.
Q33AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q43
An electric dipole of moment p⃗ is lying along a uniform electric field E⃗. The work done in rotating the dipole by 90° is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Work done in rotating a dipole in a uniform field is W = pE(cos θ₁ − cos θ₂). From θ = 0° to 90°, W = pE(1 − 0) = pE. The value 2pE applies to rotating it through 180°.
Q34AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q44
A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volts. After disconnecting the charging battery the distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a result the potential difference between the plates :
Not quite — the answer is D.
With the battery disconnected, the charge Q stays constant. Increasing the plate separation lowers C = ε₀A/d, so V = Q/C increases. The p.d. would stay constant only if the battery remained connected.
Q35AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q45
A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 s for every circular lap. The average velocity and average speed for each circular lap respectively is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
After a complete lap the car is back at its start, so displacement and hence average velocity are zero. Average speed = distance/time = 2π × 100/62.8 = 10 m/s. Average speed cannot be zero for a moving car.
Q36AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q47
A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity ω. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
The liquid moves in circles about the axis and its centre of mass is at L/2, so the net centripetal force needed is Mω²(L/2). This force is provided by the closed far end of the tube, so the liquid presses on it with MLω²/2. Expressions with L² have the wrong dimensions for a force.
Q37AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q48
A uniform rod of length l and mass m is free to rotate in a vertical plane about A. The rod initially in horizontal position is released. The initial angular acceleration of the rod is : (Moment of inertia of rod about A is ml²/3)
Not quite — the answer is A.
The weight acts at the centre, l/2 from A, giving torque τ = mgl/2. With I = ml²/3, α = τ/I = (mgl/2)/(ml²/3) = 3g/(2l). The expression mg(l/2) is the torque itself, not the angular acceleration.
Q38AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q49
The vectors A⃗ and B⃗ are such that |A⃗ + B⃗| = |A⃗ − B⃗|. The angle between the two vectors is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Squaring both sides, A² + B² + 2A·B = A² + B² − 2A·B, so A·B = 0. The vectors are therefore perpendicular, at 90°. At 0° the sum would be larger than the difference.
Q39AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q50
Two bodies, A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3 kg) are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m, respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them to reach the ground is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
In free fall from rest, h = ½gt², so t = √(2h/g) and does not depend on mass. t_A/t_B = √(16/25) = 4/5. Inverting the ratio or including the masses gives the wrong options.
Physics: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 2 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
2 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q20
A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at constant collector voltage Vc = 1.5 V such that a change in the base current from 100 μA to 150 μA produces a change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain (β) is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Current gain in CE mode is β = ΔI_C/ΔI_B = (10 − 5) mA/(150 − 100) μA = 5 × 10⁻³/50 × 10⁻⁶ = 100. Dividing the final values (10 mA/150 μA ≈ 67) instead of the changes does not give β.
Q2AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q39
The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation of a room, having all the dimensions double of those of room A ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Sabine's formula gives reverberation time T ∝ V/(aS), volume over absorbing surface area. Doubling every dimension makes V eight times and S four times, so T doubles to 2 s. Scaling with volume alone would wrongly give 8 s.
Chapter-wise split of AIPMT 2006 Prelims Physics
- Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter4 Q
- Alternating Current3 Q
- Nuclei3 Q
- Work, Energy and Power3 Q
- Motion in a Plane3 Q
- Waves3 Q
- Current Electricity2 Q
- Ray Optics and Optical Instruments2 Q
- System of Particles and Rotational Motion2 Q
- Oscillations1 Q
- Thermodynamics1 Q
- Moving Charges and Magnetism1 Q
- Thermal Properties of Matter1 Q
- Atoms1 Q
- Units and Measurements1 Q
- Electromagnetic Induction1 Q
- Laws of Motion1 Q
- Kinetic Theory1 Q
- Gravitation1 Q
- Magnetism and Matter1 Q
- Electric Charges and Fields1 Q
- Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance1 Q
- Motion in a Straight Line1 Q
AIPMT 2006 Prelims Chemistry questions
43 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q1
In producing chlorine through electrolysis 100 W power at 125 V is being consumed. How much chlorine per min is liberated ? ECE of chlorine is 0.367 × 10⁻⁶ kg/C :
Not quite — the answer is A.
The current drawn is I = P/V = 100/125 = 0.8 A, so the charge passed in one minute is 0.8 × 60 = 48 C. By Faraday's first law m = ZQ = 0.367 × 10⁻⁶ × 48 ≈ 1.76 × 10⁻⁵ kg = 17.6 mg. Forgetting the 60 s factor or using V instead of I gives none of the other values.
Q2AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q51
Identify the correct statement for change of Gibbs energy for a system (ΔG_system) at constant temperature and pressure :
Not quite — the answer is B.
At constant temperature and pressure ΔG < 0 means spontaneous, ΔG > 0 means non-spontaneous, and ΔG = 0 means the system is at equilibrium. So ΔG = 0 marks equilibrium, with no net change in any direction. The other statements reverse these signs.
Q3AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q52
A solution containing 10 g per dm³ of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol⁻¹) is isotonic with a 5% solution of a non-volatile solute. The molecular mass of this non-volatile solute is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Isotonic solutions of non-electrolytes have equal molar concentrations. Urea: 10 g/L ÷ 60 = 1/6 mol/L. A 5% solution has 50 g/L (taking 5 g per 100 mL), so 50/M = 1/6 and M = 300 g mol⁻¹.
Q4AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q54
Assume each reaction is carried out in an open container. For which reaction will ΔH = ΔE ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
ΔH = ΔE + Δn_gRT, so ΔH = ΔE only when the number of moles of gas is unchanged. For H₂ + Br₂ → 2HBr, Δn_g = 2 − 2 = 0. The water-gas reaction and the PCl₅ decomposition have Δn_g = +1, and the CO combustion has Δn_g = −1.
Q5AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q55
In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D. CH₃CH₂COOH —(SOCl₂)→ B —(NH₃)→ C —(KOH, Br₂)→ D The structure of D would be :
Not quite — the answer is D.
SOCl₂ converts the acid to propanoyl chloride, CH₃CH₂COCl, and NH₃ then gives propanamide, CH₃CH₂CONH₂. Br₂/KOH carries out the Hofmann bromamide degradation, removing one carbon to give ethylamine, CH₃CH₂NH₂, as the final compound. Propylamine would keep all three carbons, and propanamide is only the intermediate before the Hofmann step.
Q6AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q57
The human body does not produce :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The human body synthesises its own DNA, hormones and enzymes, but most vitamins cannot be made in adequate amounts and must come from the diet. That is why vitamins are called essential dietary factors.
Q7AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q59
More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The main reason for this is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
In actinoids the 5f, 6d and 7s orbitals are very close in energy, closer than 4f, 5d and 6s in lanthanoids, and 5f electrons are less tightly held. So more electrons can take part in bonding, giving many more oxidation states. A larger 5f–6d gap would have the opposite effect.
Q8AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q60
Given : The mass of electron is 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg, Planck constant is 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ Js, the uncertainty involved in the measurement of velocity within a distance of 0.1 Å is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Heisenberg: Δx·mΔv ≥ h/4π, so Δv = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴/(4 × 3.1416 × 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ × 1 × 10⁻¹¹) = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴/1.145 × 10⁻⁴⁰ ≈ 5.79 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹. Remember 0.1 Å = 10⁻¹¹ m; using 10⁻¹⁰ m would change the power of ten.
Q9AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q61
Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give :
Not quite — the answer is B.
CN⁻ reduces Cu²⁺ to Cu⁺ (2Cu²⁺ + 4CN⁻ → 2CuCN + (CN)₂), and CuCN dissolves in excess cyanide to give the stable tetracyanidocuprate(I) ion, [Cu(CN)₄]³⁻. The Cu(II) complex [Cu(CN)₄]²⁻ is not the product, and CuCN is only the intermediate before excess KCN acts.
Q10AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q62
In which of the following pairs are both the ions coloured in aqueous solution ? (At. no. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27)
Not quite — the answer is A.
Colour needs partly filled d orbitals for d–d transitions. Ni²⁺ (3d⁸) and Ti³⁺ (3d¹) are both coloured. Sc³⁺ is 3d⁰ and Cu⁺ is 3d¹⁰, so each pair containing one of them has a colourless ion.
Q11AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q63
Al₂O₃ can be converted to anhydrous AlCl₃ by heating :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Heating Al₂O₃ with carbon in dry chlorine removes the oxygen as CO while chlorine combines with aluminium: Al₂O₃ + 3C + 3Cl₂ → 2AlCl₃ + 3CO. Without carbon, Cl₂ alone cannot displace oxygen from the very stable oxide, and HCl would give hydrated, not anhydrous, products.
Q12AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q64
The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction : Br₂(l) + Cl₂(g) → 2BrCl(g) are 30 kJ mol⁻¹ and 105 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹ respectively. The temperature at which the reaction will be in equilibrium is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
At equilibrium ΔG = ΔH − TΔS = 0, so T = ΔH/ΔS = 30 000 J mol⁻¹/105 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹ = 285.7 K. Forgetting to convert kJ to J gives a meaningless 0.29 K.
Q13AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q66
The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Alkanols are CₙH₂ₙ₊₁OH, which written as a molecular formula is CₙH₂ₙ₊₂O (e.g. CH₄O for methanol, C₂H₆O for ethanol). CₙH₂ₙO fits aldehydes and ketones, and CₙH₂ₙO₂ fits acids and esters.
Q14AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q67
If E°(Fe²⁺/Fe) = −0.441 V and E°(Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺) = 0.771 V, the standard emf of the reaction : Fe + 2Fe³⁺ → 3Fe²⁺ will be :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Fe is oxidised to Fe²⁺ (anode) and Fe³⁺ is reduced to Fe²⁺ (cathode). E°cell = E°cathode − E°anode = 0.771 − (−0.441) = 1.212 V. Electrode potentials are intensive, so they are not multiplied by 2; simply adding them gives the wrong 0.33 V.
Q15AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q68
For the reaction 2A + B → 3C + D which of the following does not express the reaction rate ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Rate = −½ d[A]/dt = −d[B]/dt = +⅓ d[C]/dt = +d[D]/dt. Since C is a product its concentration rises, so −d[C]/3dt is negative and cannot represent the rate. The other three expressions are correct.
Q16AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q69
For the reaction, CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) ⇌ CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l), ΔrH = −170.8 kJ mol⁻¹ Which of the following statements is not true ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The correct expression excludes the pure liquid H₂O and raises O₂ to its coefficient: Kp = p(CO₂)/[p(CH₄)·p(O₂)²]. The given Kp = [CO₂]/[CH₄][O₂] omits the square on O₂, so it is the false statement. Adding a reactant shifts the equilibrium right, and a negative ΔrH means exothermic.
Q17AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q71
A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of α-hydroxy acid. The carbonyl compound is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Acetaldehyde adds HCN to give CH₃CH(OH)CN, whose central carbon has four different groups; attack from either face is equally likely, so a racemic cyanohydrin and, on hydrolysis, racemic lactic acid result. Formaldehyde, acetone and diethyl ketone give cyanohydrins with two identical groups, which are achiral.
Q18AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q72
Which one of the following is a peptide hormone ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Glucagon is a peptide hormone of 29 amino acids made by pancreatic α-cells. Testosterone is a steroid, while thyroxine and adrenaline are derived from the amino acid tyrosine and are not peptides.
Q19AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q73
The major organic product in the reaction, CH₃–O–CH(CH₃)₂ + HI → Product is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
HI protonates the ether oxygen and I⁻ attacks by SN2 at the less hindered carbon, which is the methyl group. The products are CH₃I and isopropyl alcohol, (CH₃)₂CHOH. Attack at the secondary isopropyl carbon, giving CH₃OH and isopropyl iodide, is slower under these conditions.
Q20AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q74
Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones towards nucleophiles because they have less steric hindrance and only one electron-releasing alkyl group. Among the aldehydes, CH₃CHO has a smaller alkyl group than CH₃CH₂CHO, so it reacts most readily. Both ketones are less reactive.
Q21AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q75
The enthalpy of combustion of H₂, cyclohexene (C₆H₁₀) and cyclohexane (C₆H₁₂) are −241, −3800 and −3920 kJ per mol respectively. Heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
For C₆H₁₀ + H₂ → C₆H₁₂, ΔH = Σ ΔcH(reactants) − Σ ΔcH(products) = (−3800 − 241) − (−3920) = −121 kJ mol⁻¹. Reversing the subtraction gives +121 kJ mol⁻¹, but hydrogenation of an alkene is exothermic.
Q22AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q77
Consider the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g). The equality relationship between d[NH₃]/dt and −d[H₂]/dt is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Rate = −⅓ d[H₂]/dt = ½ d[NH₃]/dt. Therefore d[NH₃]/dt = −(2/3) d[H₂]/dt: two moles of NH₃ form for every three moles of H₂ used. The ratio 3/2 inverts the stoichiometry.
Q23AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q78
Which of the following is not chiral ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
In 3-bromopentane, C-3 carries H, Br and two identical ethyl groups, so there is no stereocentre and the molecule is achiral. 2-Butanol and lactic acid each have a carbon with four different groups, and 2,3-dibromopentane has two such carbons with no internal symmetry.
Q24AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q79
[Co(NH₃)₄(NO₂)₂]Cl exhibits :
Not quite — the answer is B.
NO₂⁻ can bind through N (nitro) or O (nitrito), giving linkage isomers. Exchanging Cl⁻ with a coordinated NO₂⁻ gives ionisation isomers, and the two NO₂ ligands can be cis or trans, giving geometrical isomers. Neither cis nor trans [Co(NH₃)₄(NO₂)₂]⁺ is chiral, because each has mirror planes, so optical isomerism is absent.
Q25AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q80
[Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃ (at. no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 BM, the correct distribution of 3d electrons in the chromium of the complex is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
μ = √(n(n + 2)) = 3.83 BM gives n = 3 unpaired electrons, matching Cr³⁺ (3d³). In the octahedral field of six water ligands these three electrons occupy the lower t₂g set, dxy, dyz and dxz, one each. Any set that includes dx²−y² or dz² places an electron in the higher eg level.
Q26AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q81
1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250 g mol⁻¹) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant, Kf of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol⁻¹, the freezing point of benzene will be lowered by :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Molality m = (1.00/250)/(51.2/1000) = 0.004/0.0512 = 0.078 mol kg⁻¹. ΔTf = Kf × m = 5.12 × 0.078 = 0.40 K. Forgetting to convert grams of benzene to kilograms changes the answer by a factor of 1000.
Q27AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q82
Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
A buffer needs a weak acid with its conjugate base (or weak base with its conjugate acid). HNO₂ is a weak acid and NaNO₂ supplies NO₂⁻, so this pair is an acidic buffer. The other pairs contain a strong acid or strong base with a neutral salt and cannot resist pH changes.
Q28AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q83
The hydrogen ion concentration of a 10⁻⁸ M HCl aqueous solution at 298 K (Kw = 10⁻¹⁴) is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
At 10⁻⁸ M the acid's H⁺ is smaller than that from water, so both must be counted: x(x − 10⁻⁸) = 10⁻¹⁴. Solving, x = [10⁻⁸ + √(10⁻¹⁶ + 4 × 10⁻¹⁴)]/2 ≈ 1.05 × 10⁻⁷ M (pH ≈ 6.98). Taking [H⁺] = 10⁻⁸ M would make an acid solution basic (pH 8).
Q29AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q84
A solution of acetone in ethanol :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Ethanol molecules are hydrogen bonded to one another; acetone gets between them and breaks many of these bonds while forming weaker interactions. The escaping tendency increases, so the vapour pressure is higher than Raoult's law predicts, a positive deviation. A negative deviation would need stronger A–B attractions, as in acetone–chloroform.
Q30AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q85
A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown below A | A⁺ (xM) || B⁺ (yM) | B The emf measured is +0.20 V. The cell reaction is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
In the cell notation the left electrode is the anode (oxidation) and the right the cathode (reduction). A positive emf of +0.20 V means this cell is spontaneous as written: A → A⁺ + e⁻ and B⁺ + e⁻ → B, i.e. A + B⁺ → A⁺ + B. The reverse reaction would have a negative emf.
Q31AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q86
Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent yields :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The carbanion of RMgX attacks a ring carbon of ethylene oxide and opens the strained ring, giving RCH₂CH₂OMgX. Hydrolysis yields RCH₂CH₂OH, a primary alcohol with two more carbons than R. Secondary and tertiary alcohols come from aldehydes and ketones with Grignard reagents.
Q32AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q88
Which of the following is more basic than aniline ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
In benzylamine, C₆H₅CH₂NH₂, the CH₂ group separates nitrogen from the ring, so its lone pair is not delocalised and it behaves like an alkylamine, more basic than aniline. In diphenylamine and triphenylamine the lone pair is spread over two or three rings, and the nitro group in p-nitroaniline withdraws electrons, so all three are weaker than aniline.
Q33AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q89
In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
ClF₃ has 3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs on Cl (sp³d), giving a T shape with two longer axial Cl–F bonds and one shorter equatorial bond. BF₃ and AlF₃ are trigonal planar and NF₃ is pyramidal, each with three identical bonds.
Q34AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q90
The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of NH₃ (1.5 D) is larger than that of NF₃ (0.2 D). This is because :
Not quite — the answer is B.
In NH₃ the lone pair's orbital dipole points away from N, the same way as the N–H bond dipoles (towards N), so they add up to 1.5 D. In NF₃ the N–F bond dipoles point towards the F atoms, opposite to the lone-pair dipole, so they largely cancel, leaving only 0.2 D.
Q35AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q92
The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The more s-character in a hybrid orbital, the closer its electrons are held to the nucleus and the more electronegative it is. s-character is 50% in sp, 33% in sp² and 25% in sp³, so electronegativity is sp > sp² > sp³. This is why ethyne's C–H is the most acidic.
Q36AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q93
Which of the following species has a linear shape ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
NO₂⁺ has two bond pairs and no lone pair on N (sp hybridised), like the isoelectronic CO₂, so it is linear. NO₂⁻, SO₂ and O₃ each have a lone pair on the central atom and are bent.
Q37AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q94
Which of the following is the most basic oxide ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Basic character of oxides increases with metallic character, which rises down a group and falls across a period. Bi₂O₃, from the most metallic element listed, is basic; Sb₂O₃ and Al₂O₃ are amphoteric and SeO₂ is acidic.
Q38AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q95
The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by :
Not quite — the answer is C.
The magnetic quantum number mₗ fixes the orientation of an orbital in space, e.g. the three p orbitals along x, y and z. The azimuthal quantum number fixes the shape, the principal quantum number the size and energy, and the spin quantum number refers to the electron, not the orbital.
Q39AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q96
Which of the following is not a correct statement ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
AB₅ molecules with no lone pair, such as PCl₅, are trigonal bipyramidal; only those with a lone pair (AB₅E, e.g. BrF₅) are square pyramidal. So the claim that every AB₅ molecule is square pyramidal is false. The other three statements are standard facts.
Q40AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q97
The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with atomic number 16 is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Z = 16 is sulphur. S₂ is isoelectronic in its valence shell with O₂, and its two highest electrons occupy the two degenerate π* orbitals singly (Hund's rule). So S₂ has 2 unpaired electrons and is paramagnetic.
Q41AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q98
Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Bond dissociation energy of the halogens is Cl₂ > Br₂ > F₂ > I₂, because the small F atoms' lone pairs repel and weaken the F–F bond. So the order F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ for bond energy is incorrect, while it is correct for oxidising power and electronegativity, and HI > HBr > HCl > HF is the correct acid-strength order.
Q42AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q99
Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl₄ ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
SiCl₄, SO₄²⁻, PO₄³⁻ and NH₄⁺ all have four bond pairs and no lone pair on the central atom, so they are tetrahedral. SCl₄ has four bond pairs and one lone pair on S (sp³d), giving a see-saw shape, so it is not isostructural.
Q43AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q100
The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂–CH(CH₃)–CH(CH₃)–COCl is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The principal chain includes the –COCl carbon and has five carbons; numbering starts from that carbon (C-1). Methyl groups sit on C-2 and C-3, so the name is 2,3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride. Numbering from the other end, or choosing a four-carbon chain with an ethyl branch, breaks the IUPAC rules.
Chemistry: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 6 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
6 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q53
A plot of log x/m versus log p for the adsorption of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with slope equal to :
Not quite — the answer is C.
The Freundlich isotherm is x/m = kp^(1/n); taking logs, log(x/m) = log k + (1/n) log p. A plot of log(x/m) against log p is a straight line with slope 1/n and intercept log k.
Q2AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q58
CsBr crystallises in a body centred cubic lattice. The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the atomic mass of Cs = 133 and that of Br = 80 amu and Avogadro number being 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹, the density of CsBr is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
CsBr has the CsCl-type structure: one Cs⁺ at the body centre and 8 × ⅛ = 1 Br⁻ at the corners, so Z = 1 formula unit. ρ = ZM/(N_A a³) = 213/(6.02 × 10²³ × (4.366 × 10⁻⁸ cm)³) = 213/(6.02 × 10²³ × 8.32 × 10⁻²³) ≈ 4.25 g/cm³. Taking Z = 2 for a bcc lattice would double this to 8.5 g/cm³.
Q3AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q65
The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to :
Not quite — the answer is A.
When alkali halide crystals are heated in alkali-metal vapour, anion vacancies form and trap electrons; these F-centres absorb visible light and colour the crystal (e.g. NaCl turns yellow). Schottky and Frenkel defects by themselves do not produce colour.
Q4AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q70
[NH(CH₂)₆NHCO(CH₂)₄CO]ₙ is a :
Not quite — the answer is A.
This is nylon-6,6, made by condensing hexamethylenediamine with adipic acid. Since its repeating unit comes from two different monomers it is a copolymer. It is a condensation (not addition) polymer and a thermoplastic fibre, not a thermosetting one.
Q5AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q76
Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in presence of sodium ethoxide yields :
Not quite — the answer is B.
In the Claisen condensation, ethoxide removes an α-hydrogen from one ethyl acetate molecule and the carbanion attacks the carbonyl of another, expelling ethoxide. The product is CH₃COCH₂COOC₂H₅, ethyl acetoacetate (acetoacetic ester). It keeps the ethyl ester group, so it is not methyl acetoacetate.
Q6AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q91
The correct order of the mobility of the alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The smaller the ion, the more strongly it is hydrated, so Li⁺ carries the largest hydration shell and moves slowest. Hydrated size decreases down the group, so mobility in water is Rb⁺ > K⁺ > Na⁺ > Li⁺, the reverse of the order of bare ionic size.
Chapter-wise split of AIPMT 2006 Prelims Chemistry
- Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure6 Q
- Thermodynamics4 Q
- Electrochemistry3 Q
- Solutions3 Q
- Coordination Compounds3 Q
- Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers3 Q
- Equilibrium3 Q
- Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques3 Q
- Amines2 Q
- Biomolecules2 Q
- The d- and f-Block Elements2 Q
- Structure of Atom2 Q
- Chemical Kinetics2 Q
- Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids2 Q
AIPMT 2006 Prelims Biology questions
75 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q101
What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species with 8 chromosomes in its synergids ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Synergids are cells of the embryo sac and are haploid, so n = 8 here. The aleurone layer is the outermost layer of the endosperm, which is triploid (3n), giving 24 chromosomes. 16 would be the diploid (2n) count of somatic cells, not endosperm.
Q2AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q102
Pineapple (annanas) fruit develops from :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Pineapple is a composite (multiple) fruit called sorosis, formed from a whole inflorescence of many flowers borne compactly on a common axis. A multipistillate syncarpous flower is not correct because the fruit comes from many flowers, not one flower.
Q3AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q103
Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Golden rice is genetically engineered to make beta-carotene (provitamin A) in the grain, so it is meant to reduce vitamin A deficiency. Pest resistance is the trait of Bt crops, not golden rice.
Q4AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q104
Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Auxins and gibberellins can make the ovary grow into a fruit without fertilisation, giving seedless (parthenocarpic) tomatoes. Removing the androecium alone only stops pollination; without a hormone stimulus the flower would simply drop.
Q5AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q105
How does pruning help in making the hedge dense ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The shoot apex makes auxin that suppresses the lateral buds (apical dominance). Pruning removes the apex, so axillary buds grow into branches and the hedge becomes bushy. The apical shoot does not grow faster; it is the part that is removed.
Q6AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q107
Praying mantis is a good example of :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The praying mantis is green or brown like the leaves and twigs it sits on, so it is hidden from both prey and predators; this is camouflage (cryptic colouration). It is a solitary insect, so 'social insects' is wrong, and it shows no warning colours.
Q7AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q108
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The neural and endocrine systems control each other: the hypothalamus (nervous tissue) controls the pituitary, while hormones such as thyroxine and adrenaline change the activity of the nervous system. So the statement that neurons regulate endocrine glands but not the other way round is wrong.
Q8AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q110
Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Cytokinins delay leaf senescence by keeping chlorophyll and protein from breaking down, and a small dose of nitrogen supports this, so leaves stay green and photosynthesise longer for seed filling. Iron and magnesium help chlorophyll synthesis but do not stop natural senescence-type yellowing.
Q9AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q111
In which of the following fruits is the edible part the aril ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
In litchi the juicy white edible part is a fleshy aril, an outgrowth around the seed. In pomegranate the edible part is the juicy outer seed coat (testa), and in orange it is juicy hairs on the inner fruit wall.
Q10AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q112
Which one of the following aminoacids was not found to be synthesized in Miller's experiment ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Miller's spark-discharge experiment produced simple amino acids such as glycine, alanine and aspartic acid. Glutamic acid was not among those reported, so it is the odd one.
Q11AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q115
The formula for exponential population growth is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
In exponential growth the rate of change of population size with time is proportional to its size: dN/dt = rN, where r is the intrinsic rate of natural increase. The other options put the variables in the wrong positions.
Q12AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q116
Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Pyramids are built from numbers, biomass measured as dry weight, or energy flow. Fresh weight is not used because water content varies a lot between organisms and would distort the biomass comparison.
Q13AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q117
Niche overlap indicates :
Not quite — the answer is C.
A niche overlap means two species use one or more of the same resources (food, space, etc.), which can lead to competition. Two parasites on the same host is just one possible case and is not what the term means.
Q14AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q118
In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Electrons from excited P700 pass through bound iron-sulphur proteins of PS I before reaching ferredoxin, so the early acceptor is an iron-sulphur protein. Plastocyanin is the donor to PS I, not its acceptor, and ferredoxin comes later.
Q15AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q120
Which one of the following is the most suitable, medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Drosophila feeds on yeasts in fermenting fruit, so ripe (overripe) banana is the classic simple culture medium. Agar alone has no food value for the flies.
Q16AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q121
Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
In situ conservation protects species in their natural habitat, such as national parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves. A botanical garden holds plants away from their natural habitat, so it is ex situ conservation.
Q17AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q123
Phenotype of an organism is the result of :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The observable phenotype is produced by the genotype acting within a given environment. Mutations, nutrition or sexual dimorphism each affect only a part of it.
Q18AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q125
Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Peat from Sphagnum moss holds a lot of water (it is hygroscopic), so it keeps packed living plants moist during transport. Its use is not because it reduces transpiration or kills germs.
Q19AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q127
The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Slime moulds form a mass of multinucleate protoplasm without walls called a plasmodium, which can spread over long distances. Mycelium is the network of hyphae of true fungi, and protonema is the juvenile stage of mosses.
Q20AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q129
What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Sweet pea (Fabaceae) has a monocarpellary ovary with ovules along one ventral suture, which is marginal placentation. Axile placentation needs a multilocular syncarpous ovary, as in tomato.
Q21AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q130
Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The silky threads (silk) of a maize cob are the long styles and stigmas of the female flowers, which catch wind-borne pollen. They are not hairs, and anthers are borne in the male tassel.
Q22AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q131
Conifers differ from grasses in the :
Not quite — the answer is D.
In gymnosperms such as conifers the endosperm is the female gametophyte, formed before fertilisation and haploid. In grasses (angiosperms) the endosperm forms after double fertilisation and is triploid. Both groups make seeds from ovules and both have pollen tubes.
Q23AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q132
How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Only the B gene is heterozygous, so the plant makes 2^1 = 2 kinds of gametes: ABC and AbC. AA and CC each give only one kind of allele.
Q24AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q134
Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The electron transport chain enzymes lie in the inner mitochondrial membrane, which is folded into cristae; so the statement putting them in the outer membrane is incorrect. The outer membrane is porous and sieve-like.
Q25AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q135
Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The order of codons in mRNA decides the order of amino acids in the polypeptide. tRNA only brings amino acids by reading those codons; it does not decide the order.
Q26AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q136
How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to CO₂ and H₂O yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical energy available in the high energy phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
If all 686 kcal could be stored in ATP at 12 kcal per ATP, the maximum would be 686 / 12 ≈ 57 ATP. Thirty is close to the real yield from respiration, but the question asks for the theoretical maximum from the numbers given.
Q27AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q137
An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called :
Not quite — the answer is A.
An organic non-protein molecule that binds an enzyme and is needed for its activity is a coenzyme (a tightly bound one is called a prosthetic group). An apoenzyme is the protein part alone, and a holoenzyme is the complete active enzyme.
Q28AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q143
Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpillary ovary with oblique septa, and fruit a capsule or berry, are characteristic features of :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Solanaceae has pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers and a bicarpellary syncarpous ovary placed obliquely, with a capsule or berry fruit. Brassicaceae is tetramerous, and Liliaceae is trimerous with a tricarpellary ovary.
Q29AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q144
In a moss the sporophyte :
Not quite — the answer is A.
The moss sporophyte (foot, seta, capsule) stays attached to the gametophyte and gets water and some nutrients from it, though its young capsule can photosynthesise; so it is partially dependent. It produces spores, not gametes, and it grows from the zygote, not from a spore.
Q30AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q146
People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitude :
Not quite — the answer is B.
At high altitude the partial pressure of oxygen is low, so the body makes more RBCs to carry enough oxygen to the tissues. The air there actually has less available oxygen, not more.
Q31AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q147
An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Homologous organs show common ancestry with divergent evolution, and vestigial organs are remnants of organs functional in ancestors; both support organic evolution. Analogous organs come from convergent evolution and do not show common descent.
Q32AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q148
Which one of the following is not a living fossil ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Archaeopteryx is an extinct Jurassic fossil bird with reptile features, a connecting link. King crab, Sphenodon and Peripatus are living species that have changed little over long times, i.e. living fossils.
Q33AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q149
Annual migration does not occur in the case of :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Salmon, Siberian crane and arctic tern all make long annual migrations. Salamanders are amphibians that stay in a small local area and do not make annual migrations.
Q34AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q150
A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of electron microscope. This is because :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Electrons have a much shorter wavelength than light, so an electron microscope has far greater resolving power and shows fine cell structures. The option quoting 200–350 nm for the electron microscope swaps the values, and electron beams need very thin sections.
Q35AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q151
Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Loligo (squid), Teredo (shipworm) and Octopus are all molluscs. Bonellia is not a cnidarian, Enterobius is a roundworm, not a flatworm, and Pennatula (sea pen) is a cnidarian, not a sponge.
Q36AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q152
Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of :
Not quite — the answer is C.
True metameric segmentation, with the body divided into repeated segments, is found in Annelida and Arthropoda. Platyhelminthes and molluscs are not metamerically segmented.
Q37AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q155
What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia are all single-celled eukaryotes, i.e. protists. Not all are parasites, since Noctiluca is a free-living marine dinoflagellate, and Monocystis has no flagella.
Q38AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q157
Microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are :
Not quite — the answer is A.
E. coli is the main host for cloning vectors, and Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to transfer genes into plants through its Ti plasmid. Caenorhabditis elegans is a nematode, not a microbe.
Q39AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q158
Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread ? A. Temperature of about 25°C B. Temperature of about 5°C C. Relative humidity of about 5% D. Relative humidity of about 95% E. A shady place F. A brightly illuminated place Choose the answer from the following options :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Bread mould (Mucor) grows best in warm (around 25°C), very humid and shady conditions. Cold (5°C), dry air or bright light slow its growth.
Q40AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q159
Evolutionary history of an organism is known as :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Phylogeny is the evolutionary history of a species or group. Ontogeny is the development of a single individual from zygote to adult.
Q41AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q160
Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The Western Ghats (with Sri Lanka) is one of the global biodiversity hotspots in India because of its high species richness and endemism. The Indo-Gangetic plain and Aravalli hills are not hotspots.
Q42AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q161
During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Oxygen is taken up when RuBisCO acts as an oxygenase on RuBP in the chloroplast stroma, and again when glycolate is oxidised by glycolate oxidase in the peroxisome. Mitochondria release CO₂ in this pathway; they do not consume O₂ in it.
Q43AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q162
Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Human skin colour is controlled by several genes with additive effects, giving continuous variation; this is polygenic inheritance. Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa shows incomplete dominance of a single gene.
Q44AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q163
Which one of the following not act as a neurotransmitter ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Cortisone is a steroid hormone of the adrenal cortex, not a neurotransmitter. Acetylcholine, epinephrine and norepinephrine are all released at synapses.
Q45AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q164
Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as :
Not quite — the answer is A.
FSH acts on Sertoli cells and helps spermatogenesis. LH acts mainly on Leydig cells to stimulate testosterone secretion.
Q46AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q165
A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid; it raises blood sugar by stimulating gluconeogenesis and other effects on carbohydrate metabolism. 11-deoxycorticosterone acts mainly as a mineralocorticoid on salt balance.
Q47AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q166
The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The head of myosin has ATPase activity and binds actin to make cross-bridges, driving contraction. Troponin and tropomyosin are regulatory proteins on the thin filament with no ATPase activity.
Q48AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q167
Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
cAMP, cGMP and Ca²⁺ act as second messengers that relay hormone signals inside the cell. Sodium ions are not used as second messengers.
Q49AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q169
One gene – one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Beadle and Tatum, working with Neurospora mutants, proposed that one gene controls one enzyme. Garrod earlier described inborn errors of metabolism but did not state this hypothesis.
Q50AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q170
One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately :
Not quite — the answer is C.
B-DNA has about 10 base pairs per turn with 0.34 nm between pairs, so one turn (pitch) is about 3.4 nm. 0.34 nm is the distance between adjacent base pairs, and 2 nm is the helix diameter.
Q51AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q171
Test cross involves :
Not quite — the answer is C.
In a test cross the F₁ (or any dominant-phenotype) plant is crossed with the homozygous recessive parent to find its genotype. Crossing two F₁ hybrids is selfing that gives the F₂.
Q52AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q172
Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that :
Not quite — the answer is C.
The two strands of DNA run in opposite directions, one 5'→3' and the other 3'→5', so the phosphate end (5') of each strand lies at opposite ends of the molecule. Both strands turn the same way in a right-handed helix.
Q53AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q173
Areolar connective tissue joins :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Areolar tissue lies beneath the skin and attaches the skin (integument) to the underlying muscles. Bones are joined to muscles by tendons and to other bones by ligaments.
Q54AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q174
Mast cells secrete :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Mast cells of connective tissue release histamine (and heparin, serotonin) during inflammation and allergy. Haemoglobin and myoglobin are oxygen-binding proteins of RBCs and muscle, not secretions.
Q55AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q175
If a colourblind woman marries a normal visioned man, their sons will be :
Not quite — the answer is D.
A colourblind woman is XᶜXᶜ, so every son gets an X carrying the colourblind allele from her and a Y from the father; all sons are colourblind. The daughters would be carriers with normal vision.
Q56AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q177
Restriction endonuclease :
Not quite — the answer is B.
A restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic base sequence and cuts DNA at or near that site. It does not cut randomly or make DNA.
Q57AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q178
Antibodies in our body are complex :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Antibodies (immunoglobulins) are glycoproteins made of two heavy and two light polypeptide chains with carbohydrate attached. They are not lipoproteins, steroids or prostaglandins.
Q58AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q180
Earthworms are :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Earthworms excrete mainly ammonia when plenty of water is available and switch to urea when water is scarce. They are not uricotelic.
Q59AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q181
Which of the following is an accumulation and release centre of neurohormones ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Oxytocin and vasopressin are made by hypothalamic neurons, travel down their axons, and are stored in and released from the posterior pituitary. The hypothalamus produces these neurohormones but the place where they collect and are released is the neurohypophysis.
Q60AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q182
Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of menstruation ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
When the corpus luteum degenerates without fertilisation, progesterone falls and the endometrium can no longer be kept, so menstruation starts. FSH and oestrogen falling are not the direct trigger.
Q61AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q183
Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Insects carry oxygen directly to tissues through tracheal tubes, and their blood (haemolymph) plays little part in oxygen transport, so this statement is the incorrect one. Residual air does slightly lower efficiency because fresh air is mixed with stale air.
Q62AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q184
Which one of the following has an open circulatory system ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Periplaneta (cockroach), like other arthropods, has an open circulatory system with blood flowing through haemocoel sinuses. Pheretima, Hirudinaria and Octopus have closed systems.
Q63AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q185
Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption and glycogenolysis ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Adrenaline (the fight-or-flight hormone) raises oxygen use, breaks down glycogen and widens blood vessels in muscles and heart. Glucagon also causes glycogenolysis but does not produce these vascular and metabolic stress effects.
Q64AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q186
The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Mad cow disease (bovine spongiform encephalopathy) is caused by prions, abnormally folded infectious proteins. It is not caused by a virus or bacterium.
Q65AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q188
Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristics of :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Ctenophores such as Ctenoplana and Beroe have biradial symmetry and lack cnidoblasts, using colloblasts to catch prey instead. Hydra, sea anemone and Aurelia are cnidarians with cnidoblasts.
Q66AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q189
The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The mature embryo sac has 3 cells at the micropylar end (egg apparatus), 2 polar nuclei in the central cell and 3 antipodals at the chalazal end: 3 + 2 + 3. It is 7-celled and 8-nucleate.
Q67AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q190
An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Gibberellin from the embryo makes the aleurone layer produce α-amylase, which breaks starch into sugars for the growing seedling. This is the basis of using GA in malting barley.
Q68AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q191
In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by :
Not quite — the answer is B.
In grass (cereal) embryos the single shield-shaped cotyledon is called the scutellum. The coleoptile and coleorhiza are sheaths covering the plumule and radicle.
Q69AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q192
The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our body cells is transported to the lungs :
Not quite — the answer is B.
About 70% of CO₂ is carried in plasma as bicarbonate ions, formed with carbonic anhydrase in RBCs. About 20–25% travels bound to haemoglobin and around 7% dissolved.
Q70AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q195
HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying :
Not quite — the answer is D.
HIV enters and multiplies inside helper T-lymphocytes, which it gradually destroys, so their number falls. B-lymphocytes are not the first target.
Q71AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q196
In which one of the following sets of animals do all the four give birth to young ones ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin and loris are all viviparous mammals. Each other set has an egg-layer: ostrich, platypus and penguin, or kiwi.
Q72AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q197
Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Heterozygous carriers (HbA HbS) are more resistant to falciparum malaria, so the allele is kept in high frequency where malaria is common. Simply being recessive does not explain why the allele persists at such a high frequency.
Q73AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q198
Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab are :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Centipedes, cockroaches and crabs are arthropods, so they all have jointed legs and a chitinous exoskeleton. Anal cerci, tracheae, green glands and book lungs are found only in some of them.
Q74AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q199
Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington's chorea are :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington's chorea are genetic (inherited) disorders, present from birth in the genotype. They are not caused by microbes or pollutants.
Q75AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q200
Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Angiotensinogen is a plasma protein made by liver cells; renin from JG cells converts it to angiotensin I. JG cells secrete renin, not angiotensinogen.
Biology: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 20 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
20 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q106
The 'blue baby' syndrome results from :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Excess nitrate in drinking water is converted to nitrite, which oxidises haemoglobin to methaemoglobin that cannot carry oxygen, turning infants bluish ('blue baby' syndrome). Excess chloride or dissolved solids do not cause this condition.
Q2AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q109
Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the following, is likely to alleviate his symptoms ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Large, immature, nucleated red cells (megaloblasts) are typical of megaloblastic anaemia, which comes from a shortage of folic acid or vitamin B12 (cobalamin) needed for DNA synthesis in dividing marrow cells. Iron deficiency instead gives small, pale (microcytic) red cells.
Q3AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q113
Crop plants grown in monoculture are :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Large areas of one genetically uniform crop give a pest or pathogen that attacks it an unlimited food supply, so monocultures are highly prone to pest outbreaks. They are not free from intraspecific competition, since all plants are the same species competing for the same resources.
Q4AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q114
Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate action to protect the ozone layer from human activities was passed in the year :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The Montreal Protocol to control ozone-depleting substances was signed in 1987 in Montreal, Canada. The 1985 date is the Vienna Convention, which set the framework but did not set the controls.
Q5AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q119
Treatment of seed at low temperature under moist conditions to break its dormancy is called :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Stratification is keeping seeds moist at low temperature to break dormancy. Vernalisation is a cold treatment that promotes flowering, not seed germination, and scarification is breaking a hard seed coat.
Q6AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q122
Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between t-RNA and m-RNA during bacterial protein synthesis ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Tetracycline binds the 30S ribosomal subunit and blocks aminoacyl-tRNA from pairing with the mRNA codon at the A site. Erythromycin acts on the 50S subunit and blocks peptide movement, not tRNA-mRNA binding.
Q7AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q124
Photochemical smog pollution does not contain :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Photochemical smog forms when nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons react in sunlight, producing ozone, PAN and nitrogen dioxide. Carbon dioxide is not a component of this smog.
Q8AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q128
In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal influence among the off spring ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Genes in mitochondria and plastids are passed on mostly through the egg cytoplasm, so cytoplasmic inheritance shows strong maternal influence. X-linked traits are inherited from both parents, and Y-linked traits come only from the father.
Q9AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q133
In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Hybrid vigour is obtained by crossing two different inbred lines; the F1 hybrid outperforms both parents. Simply picking seed from the best plants is mass selection and does not exploit heterosis.
Q10AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q138
Bowman's glands are found in :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Bowman's glands lie in the olfactory epithelium of the nose and secrete mucus that dissolves odour molecules. They should not be confused with Bowman's capsule of the nephron.
Q11AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q139
The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Clostridium botulinum cannot grow in the presence of oxygen; it is an obligate anaerobe, which is why it grows in badly canned, airless foods. A facultative anaerobe can grow with or without oxygen.
Q12AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q140
Which one of the following is the correctly matched pair of an endangered animal and a National Park ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Kaziranga National Park in Assam is famous for the endangered one-horned rhinoceros. Lions live only in Gir, not Corbett (known for tigers), and the wild ass is in the Rann of Kutch, not Dudhwa.
Q13AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q141
A person showing unpredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others is suffering from :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Unstable moods, emotional outbursts, quarrelsome behaviour and repeated conflict with others are the defining features of borderline personality disorder. Schizophrenia is marked by hallucinations, delusions and disordered thinking, which are not described here.
Q14AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q145
Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Curing (fermentation) of tea leaves is done by the activity of bacteria, which develop flavour and colour. Fungi are used in other processes such as cheese ripening.
Q15AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q153
Which of the following pairs of an animal and a plant represents endangered organisms in India ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Bentinckia nicobarica is an endangered palm of the Nicobar Islands and the red panda is an endangered mammal of the eastern Himalaya. Tamarind, banyan and the rhesus monkey are common and not endangered.
Q16AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q154
Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterised by :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In the Jurassic period gymnosperms such as conifers and cycads were the dominant plants and the first birds (Archaeopteryx) appeared. Dinosaurs became extinct at the end of the Cretaceous, not the Jurassic.
Q17AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q176
Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Cri-du-chat syndrome is due to deletion of part of the short arm (p arm) of chromosome 5, giving a cat-like cry in infants. Trisomy 21 causes Down syndrome.
Q18AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q187
The translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members is supported by :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Food moves in sieve tubes by mass (pressure) flow, and loading of sugars into sieve tubes uses carrier proteins and ATP. Root pressure and transpiration pull move water in xylem, not food in phloem.
Q19AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q193
Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Triticale is an artificial cereal from crossing wheat (Triticum) with rye (Secale), then doubling the chromosomes. Barley and pearl millet are not its parents.
Q20AIPMT 2006 Prelims · Q194
In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue culture the best method is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The apical and axillary meristems are usually free of virus, so culturing meristems gives virus-free plants. Anther culture is used to raise haploid plants, not virus-free ones.
Chapter-wise split of AIPMT 2006 Prelims Biology
- Principles of Inheritance and Variation8 Q
- Animal Kingdom6 Q
- Chemical Coordination and Integration5 Q
- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants4 Q
- Morphology of Flowering Plants4 Q
- Plant Growth and Development4 Q
- Organisms and Populations4 Q
- Evolution4 Q
- Biological Classification4 Q
- Molecular Basis of Inheritance4 Q
- Plant Kingdom3 Q
- Breathing and Exchange of Gases3 Q
- Photosynthesis in Higher Plants2 Q
- Biodiversity and Conservation2 Q
- Cell: The Unit of Life2 Q
- Biotechnology: Principles and Processes2 Q
- Human Reproduction2 Q
- Structural Organisation in Animals2 Q
- Human Health and Disease2 Q
- Excretory Products and Their Elimination2 Q
- Biotechnology and Its Applications1 Q
- Ecosystem1 Q
- Respiration in Plants1 Q
- Biomolecules1 Q
- Neural Control and Coordination1 Q
- Locomotion and Movement1 Q
About this paper
How many questions from AIPMT 2006 Prelims are on this page?
185 questions (Physics 41, Chemistry 49, Biology 95). Questions that need a diagram we could not reproduce, or whose wording in the source was unclear, are left out.
Are these the original questions?
Yes. The questions and options are as set in the AIPMT 2006 Prelims paper, conducted by CBSE. The answer to every question was checked by the RankUp team, and the explanations are RankUp's own.
Is AIPMT 2006 Prelims useful for NEET 2027?
Yes. The NEET syllabus is built on the same NCERT books. 28 questions here are on topics NCERT has since dropped; they are listed separately so you can skip them.
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