NEET 2019 Question PaperPhysics, Chemistry and Biology, with checked answers and solutions
By the RankUp team, founded by Dr. Deepak Sahu (MBBS Gold Medalist, NEET PG AIR 1731) · Updated
159 questions from the NEET 2019 paper, conducted by NTA. Tap an option to check your answer and read why it is right. Each subject has a free PDF with the answer key and explanations.
- Exam
- NEET 2019
- Conducted by
- NTA
- Physics
- 38 questions
- Chemistry
- 39 questions
- Biology
- 82 questions
NEET 2019 Physics questions
36 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2019 · Q1
When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Elastic energy stored = ½ × force × extension = ½ × Mg × l. Using MgL confuses the original length with the extension, and Mgl forgets the factor ½ (the average force during stretching is half the final force).
Q2NEET 2019 · Q2
A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when:
Not quite — the answer is C.
At the lowest point the tension must supply the centripetal force and also balance the full weight, T = mg + mv²/r, and the speed is also maximum there, so tension is greatest. At the highest point gravity helps provide the centripetal force, so tension is least.
Q3NEET 2019 · Q3
Ionized hydrogen atoms and α-particles with same momenta enters perpendicular to a constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of their radii of their paths r_H : r_α will be:
Not quite — the answer is A.
r = p/(qB); with equal momenta r ∝ 1/q. The proton has charge e and the α-particle 2e, so r_H : r_α = 2 : 1. Taking 1 : 2 inverts the dependence on charge.
Q4NEET 2019 · Q4
Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2m, at rest. The collision is head on and elastic in nature. After the collision the fraction of energy lost by the colliding body A is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
For a 1-D elastic collision v_A = (m₁ − m₂)u/(m₁ + m₂) = (4m − 2m)u/6m = u/3. A keeps (1/3)² = 1/9 of its kinetic energy, so it loses 8/9. 1/9 is the fraction retained, not lost.
Q5NEET 2019 · Q5
In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of the first minima formed on a screen placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What will be the angular width of the first minima, if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water? (μ_water = 4/3)
Not quite — the answer is B.
Angular width ∝ λ, and in water λ becomes λ/μ. New width = 0.2° × 3/4 = 0.15°. Multiplying by 4/3 (0.266°) wrongly assumes the wavelength increases in water.
Q6NEET 2019 · Q7
A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface tension of 2.5 × 10⁻² N/m. The pressure inside the bubble equals at a point Z₀ below the free surface of water in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s², density of water = 10³ kg/m³, the value of Z₀ is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Excess pressure in a soap bubble (two surfaces) = 4T/r = 4 × 2.5 × 10⁻²/10⁻³ = 100 Pa. Setting ρgZ₀ = 100 gives Z₀ = 100/(10³ × 10) = 0.01 m = 1 cm. Using 2T/r (single surface) would give 0.5 cm.
Q7NEET 2019 · Q8
Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?
Not quite — the answer is A.
In the visible spectrum wavelength decreases from red (about 700 nm) to violet (about 400 nm), so red has the longest wavelength. Violet is the shortest-wavelength end.
Q8NEET 2019 · Q9
A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it?
Not quite — the answer is A.
For a rolling disc KE = ½mv²(1 + k²/R²) = ¾mv² = 0.75 × 100 × (0.2)² = 3 J, so 3 J of work must be removed. Counting only translational KE gives 2 J; forgetting to convert cm/s to m/s gives 30 kJ.
Q9NEET 2019 · Q10
The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by y = A₀ + A sinωt + B cosωt. Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given by:
Not quite — the answer is B.
A₀ only shifts the mean position; A sinωt + B cosωt combine into a single sinusoid of amplitude √(A² + B²). Adding A₀ to it gives the maximum displacement from the origin, not the amplitude about the mean position.
Q10NEET 2019 · Q11
Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal length f each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the focal length of the combination is F₁. When the space between the two lenses is filled with glycerin (which has the same refractive index (μ = 1.5) as that of glass) then the equivalent focal length is F₂. The ratio F₁ : F₂ will be:
Not quite — the answer is B.
For an equiconvex glass lens (μ = 1.5) f = R, so F₁ = f/2. The glycerin film is a concave lens with 1/f = 0.5(−2/R) = −1/f. Then 1/F₂ = 1/f + 1/f − 1/f = 1/f, so F₂ = f and F₁ : F₂ = 1 : 2. The ratio 2 : 1 inverts this.
Q11NEET 2019 · Q12
Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a container would lead to:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Average molecular kinetic energy is proportional to absolute temperature, so heating raises it. In a closed container the mass is fixed and pressure increases (not decreases) with temperature.
Q12NEET 2019 · Q13
An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength is, (nearly): (mₑ = 9 × 10⁻³¹ kg)
Not quite — the answer is B.
λ = h/√(2meV) ≈ 1.227/√V nm = 1.227/100 nm = 1.227 × 10⁻¹¹ m = 12.2 × 10⁻¹² m. 12.2 nm would correspond to an accelerating voltage of only about 0.01 V.
Q13NEET 2019 · Q14
A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of unknown length have their increase in length independent of increase in temperature. The length of aluminium rod is: (α_Cu = 1.7 × 10⁻⁵ K⁻¹ and α_Al = 2.2 × 10⁻⁵ K⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is D.
Equal expansions require L_Cu α_Cu = L_Al α_Al, so L_Al = 88 × 1.7/2.2 = 68 cm. 113.9 cm comes from inverting the ratio of expansion coefficients.
Q14NEET 2019 · Q16
A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the earth. How much will it weigh half way down to the centre of the earth?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Inside the earth g(d) = g(1 − d/R); at d = R/2, g is halved, so the weight becomes 100 N. 150 N wrongly uses a quarter reduction.
Q15NEET 2019 · Q18
For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true?
Not quite — the answer is B.
A p-type semiconductor is made by doping with trivalent (acceptor) atoms, which create holes; holes are therefore the majority carriers. Pentavalent dopants produce n-type material with electrons as majority carriers.
Q16NEET 2019 · Q19
Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in one complete vibration is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
After one complete vibration the particle returns to its starting point, so displacement is zero and average velocity is zero. Aω is the maximum speed, not the average velocity.
Q17NEET 2019 · Q20
The unit of thermal conductivity is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
From H = KA(ΔT)/L, K = HL/(AΔT), giving W·m/(m²·K) = W m⁻¹ K⁻¹. J m⁻¹ K⁻¹ misses the per-second (rate) part of heat flow.
Q18NEET 2019 · Q21
A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to stop after 2π revolutions is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
I = ½MR² = ½ × 2 × (0.04)² = 1.6 × 10⁻³ kg m². ω = 3 × 2π/60 = π/10 rad/s; θ = 2π rev × 2π = 4π² rad. α = ω²/2θ = (π²/100)/(8π²) = 1/800 rad/s², so τ = Iα = 2 × 10⁻⁶ N m. Treating 2π revolutions as 2π radians gives a value 2π times too large.
Q19NEET 2019 · Q22
A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y-direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
W = ∫₀¹ (20 + 10y) dy = 20 + 5 = 25 J. Using the final force value 30 N times 1 m gives 30 J, ignoring that the force varies.
Q20NEET 2019 · Q23
Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device?
Not quite — the answer is D.
A fuse melts and breaks the circuit when the current exceeds a safe value, protecting the circuit. A switch only opens or closes the circuit manually and does not respond to overload.
Q21NEET 2019 · Q25
A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from the centre:
Not quite — the answer is B.
By Gauss's law the field inside a charged conducting shell is zero, and outside it falls as kQ/r². A field increasing outside the sphere would contradict the inverse-square dependence.
Q22NEET 2019 · Q27
The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is −3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively:
Not quite — the answer is C.
In the Bohr model K = −E and U = 2E. With E = −3.4 eV, K = +3.4 eV and U = −6.8 eV. Kinetic energy can never be negative, which rules out the choices with negative KE.
Q23NEET 2019 · Q28
In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact, what will be angle of refraction?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The critical angle is defined as the angle of incidence for which the refracted ray grazes the interface, i.e. the angle of refraction is 90°. Beyond it, total internal reflection occurs.
Q24NEET 2019 · Q29
The work done to raise a mass m from the surface of the earth to a height h, which is equal to the radius of the earth, is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
W = GMm(1/R − 1/2R) = GMm/2R = ½ mgR. mgR assumes g stays constant up to height R, which is invalid.
Q25NEET 2019 · Q30
When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60° with the horizontal, it can travel a distance x₁ along the plane. But when the inclination is decreased to 30° and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel x₂ distance. Then x₁ : x₂ will be:
Not quite — the answer is C.
On a smooth incline the deceleration is g sinθ, so x = u²/(2g sinθ). x₁/x₂ = sin30°/sin60° = (1/2)/(√3/2) = 1 : √3. A steeper incline decelerates the object more, so x₁ must be the smaller distance.
Q26NEET 2019 · Q31
α-particle consists of:
Not quite — the answer is A.
An α-particle is a helium-4 nucleus: 2 protons and 2 neutrons, with no electrons (hence its +2e charge). Including 2 electrons would describe a neutral helium atom.
Q27NEET 2019 · Q32
The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is flowing due east. If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross the river along the shortest path, the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by:
Not quite — the answer is A.
For the shortest path his resultant velocity must point due north, so the westward component of his swimming velocity must cancel the current: 20 sinθ = 10, θ = 30° west of north. Swimming straight north (0°) gives minimum time, not the shortest path.
Q28NEET 2019 · Q34
Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii r_A and r_B with speed v_A and v_B respectively. Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of angular speed of A to that of B will be:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Angular speed ω = 2π/T; equal time periods mean equal angular speeds, ratio 1 : 1. The ratio v_A : v_B equals r_A : r_B here, which is the ratio of linear, not angular, speeds.
Q29NEET 2019 · Q35
A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block stationary when the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its axis, will be: (g = 10 m/s²)
Not quite — the answer is C.
The normal force supplies the centripetal force, N = mω²r, and friction must balance weight: μmω²r ≥ mg. ω² = g/(μr) = 10/(0.1 × 1) = 100, so ω = 10 rad/s. √10 rad/s forgets to divide by μ.
Q30NEET 2019 · Q36
Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge densities +λ C/m and −λ C/m are placed at a distance of 2R in free space. What is the electric field mid-way between the two line charges?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Each line gives E = λ/(2πε₀R) at distance R. At the midpoint the field of +λ points away from it and that of −λ points toward it, i.e. in the same direction, so they add: λ/(πε₀R). Zero would hold only for like charges.
Q31NEET 2019 · Q37
Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and −Q respectively, are placed at certain distance apart and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then force between the charges becomes:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Transferring Q/4 from A to B leaves A with +3Q/4 and B with −Q + Q/4 = −3Q/4. Force ∝ product of charges, so F′ = (9/16)F. 16F/9 inverts the ratio.
Q32NEET 2019 · Q38
A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm² is present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s², the rate of flow of water through the open hole would be nearly:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Torricelli: v = √(2gh) = √40 ≈ 6.32 m/s. Flow rate = Av = 2 × 10⁻⁶ × 6.32 ≈ 12.6 × 10⁻⁶ m³/s. 6.4 × 10⁻⁶ m³/s is roughly the speed alone without multiplying by the 2 mm² area.
Q33NEET 2019 · Q40
In which of the following processes, heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system?
Not quite — the answer is B.
An adiabatic process is by definition one with no heat exchange (Q = 0). In an isothermal process heat does flow, exactly balancing the work done, so that temperature remains constant.
Q34NEET 2019 · Q41
A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m² is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10⁻⁵ T. When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf induced in the coil will be:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Flux changes from NBA to zero: Δφ = 800 × 5 × 10⁻⁵ × 0.05 = 2 × 10⁻³ Wb. emf = Δφ/Δt = 2 × 10⁻³/0.1 = 0.02 V. 2 × 10⁻³ V is the flux change, not divided by the time.
Q35NEET 2019 · Q43
A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 μF is being charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The conduction current through the connecting wires, and the displacement current through the plates of the capacitor, would be, respectively:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Conduction current I = C dV/dt = 20 × 10⁻⁶ × 3 = 60 μA. Displacement current between the plates equals the conduction current in the wires, so both are 60 μA. Saying the displacement current is zero ignores Maxwell's correction.
Q36NEET 2019 · Q44
In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Then the maximum percentage of error in the measurement X, where X = A²B^(1/2) / (C^(1/3) D³), will be:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Maximum relative errors add regardless of whether the quantity is in the numerator or denominator: 2 × 1% + ½ × 2% + ⅓ × 3% + 3 × 4% = 2 + 1 + 1 + 12 = 16%. Subtracting the denominator errors gives the wrong −10%.
Physics: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 2 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
2 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2019 · Q15
Pick the wrong answer in the context with rainbow.
Not quite — the answer is C.
A rainbow is seen only with the sun behind the observer, so the statement about facing the sun is wrong. Secondary rainbows do involve two internal reflections with reversed colour order, and rainbows arise from dispersion, refraction and internal reflection.
Q2NEET 2019 · Q26
At a point A on the earth's surface the angle of dip, δ = +25°. At a point B on the earth's surface the angle of dip, δ = −25°. We can interpret that:
Not quite — the answer is C.
A positive dip means the north end of the needle dips downward, which happens in the northern (magnetic) hemisphere; negative dip means the needle's north end points up, as in the southern hemisphere. So A is north and B is south.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2019 Physics
- Laws of Motion3 Q
- Electric Charges and Fields3 Q
- Work, Energy and Power2 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Fluids2 Q
- Electromagnetic Waves2 Q
- System of Particles and Rotational Motion2 Q
- Oscillations2 Q
- Ray Optics and Optical Instruments2 Q
- Thermal Properties of Matter2 Q
- Gravitation2 Q
- Motion in a Plane2 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Solids1 Q
- Moving Charges and Magnetism1 Q
- Wave Optics1 Q
- Kinetic Theory1 Q
- Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter1 Q
- Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits1 Q
- Current Electricity1 Q
- Atoms1 Q
- Nuclei1 Q
- Thermodynamics1 Q
- Electromagnetic Induction1 Q
- Units and Measurements1 Q
NEET 2019 Chemistry questions
30 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2019 · Q46
The number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Pent-2-en-4-yne is CH₃–CH=CH–C≡CH: 4 C–C σ bonds + 6 C–H σ bonds = 10 σ; the double bond adds 1 π and the triple bond 2 π, total 3 π. Counting every bond line of the multiple bonds as π would overcount.
Q2NEET 2019 · Q47
The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction, is: C₆H₅–CH(CH₃)₂ (cumene) —O₂→ A —H⁺/H₂O→ C₆H₅OH (phenol) + CH₃COCH₃ (acetone)
Not quite — the answer is B.
Air oxidation of cumene attacks the tertiary benzylic C–H, giving cumene hydroperoxide C₆H₅C(CH₃)₂OOH, which rearranges in acid to phenol and acetone. Isopropyl phenyl ether is not formed by O₂ and would not give acetone on hydrolysis.
Q3NEET 2019 · Q49
4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
(n + l) values: 5f = 8, 6p = 7, 5p = 6, 4d = 6; for equal n + l the higher n is higher in energy, so 5p > 4d. Order: 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d. Putting 4d above 5p ignores the tie-break on n.
Q4NEET 2019 · Q53
For the cell reaction 2Fe³⁺(aq) + 2I⁻(aq) → 2Fe²⁺(aq) + I₂(aq), E°cell = 0.24 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs energy (ΔrG°) of the cell reaction is: [Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol⁻¹]
Not quite — the answer is A.
Two electrons are transferred, so ΔG° = −nFE° = −2 × 96500 × 0.24 = −46320 J = −46.32 kJ mol⁻¹. Using n = 1 gives −23.16 kJ mol⁻¹, and a positive E° must give a negative ΔG°.
Q5NEET 2019 · Q55
The most suitable reagent for the following conversion, is: H₃C–C≡C–CH₃ → cis-2-butene
Not quite — the answer is B.
Lindlar's catalyst (H₂ over partially poisoned Pd with quinoline) adds hydrogen syn to the alkyne, giving the cis-alkene. Na in liquid NH₃ gives anti addition and hence trans-2-butene.
Q6NEET 2019 · Q57
Which of the following is incorrect statement?
Not quite — the answer is A.
SnF₄ and PbF₄ are ionic in nature, so calling PbF₄ covalent is incorrect. SiCl₄ hydrolyses readily because Si has vacant d orbitals, and Ge prefers the +4 state so GeX₄ is more stable than GeX₂.
Q7NEET 2019 · Q58
Match the following: (a) Pure nitrogen — (i) Chlorine (b) Haber process — (ii) Sulphuric acid (c) Contact process — (iii) Ammonia (d) Deacon's process — (iv) Sodium azide or Barium azide Which of the following is the correct option?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Very pure N₂ is obtained by thermal decomposition of sodium or barium azide; the Haber process makes ammonia; the Contact process makes sulphuric acid; and Deacon's process makes chlorine by oxidising HCl with O₂ over CuCl₂.
Q8NEET 2019 · Q59
Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only π bonds according to Molecular Orbital Theory?
Not quite — the answer is C.
C₂ (12 electrons) has configuration σ1s² σ*1s² σ2s² σ*2s² (π2pₓ² = π2p_y²); its bond order of 2 comes from the two π bonding pairs only, with no σ2p electrons. N₂ and O₂ contain a σ2p bond in addition to π bonds, and Be₂ has no net bond.
Q9NEET 2019 · Q60
For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
IE generally rises across the period, but B < Be (Be has a filled 2s, B's 2p electron is easier to remove) and O < N (N has a stable half-filled 2p³; O's paired electron is repelled). Hence Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne.
Q10NEET 2019 · Q62
pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)₂ is 9. The solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)₂ is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
pOH = 5, so [OH⁻] = 10⁻⁵ M and [Ca²⁺] = 0.5 × 10⁻⁵ M. Ksp = [Ca²⁺][OH⁻]² = 0.5 × 10⁻⁵ × 10⁻¹⁰ = 0.5 × 10⁻¹⁵. Taking s = 10⁻⁵ and computing 4s³ wrongly treats [OH⁻] as the solubility.
Q11NEET 2019 · Q63
If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of 99% of the reaction is given by:
Not quite — the answer is C.
t = (2.303/k) log([A]₀/[A]) = (2.303/k) log(100/1) = 4.606/k. 0.693/k is only the half-life, and 2.303/k corresponds to 90% completion.
Q12NEET 2019 · Q64
The non-essential amino acid among the following is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Alanine can be synthesised in the body, so it is non-essential. Valine, leucine and lysine must be obtained from the diet and are essential amino acids.
Q13NEET 2019 · Q65
Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
AlCl₃ polarises Cl₂ to generate the electrophile Cl⁺, which attacks the benzene ring: electrophilic aromatic substitution. The Sandmeyer reaction is a radical process, UV chlorination is free-radical addition, and benzyl alcohol with HCl is nucleophilic substitution.
Q14NEET 2019 · Q67
For the chemical reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) the correct option is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Rate = −d[N₂]/dt = −(1/3)d[H₂]/dt = +(1/2)d[NH₃]/dt. The relation with a negative sign on the NH₃ term is wrong because NH₃ is a product whose concentration increases.
Q15NEET 2019 · Q68
The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber's process is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃: 3 mol H₂ give 2 mol NH₃, so 20 mol NH₃ need 20 × 3/2 = 30 mol H₂. 10 mol is the N₂ requirement.
Q16NEET 2019 · Q69
The compound that is most difficult to protonate is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
In phenol the oxygen lone pair is delocalised into the benzene ring, so it is least available to accept a proton. In water, methanol and dimethyl ether the lone pairs are localised, and the electron-donating methyl groups make the ether easiest to protonate.
Q17NEET 2019 · Q70
For an ideal solution, the correct option is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
An ideal solution has ΔmixH = 0 and ΔmixV = 0. Mixing still increases entropy (ΔmixS > 0), so ΔmixG is negative, not zero.
Q18NEET 2019 · Q71
Conjugate base for Brönsted acids H₂O and HF are:
Not quite — the answer is C.
A conjugate base is what remains after the acid loses a proton: H₂O → OH⁻ and HF → F⁻. H₃O⁺ and H₂F⁺ are conjugate acids formed by gaining a proton.
Q19NEET 2019 · Q74
An alkene "A" on reaction with O₃ and Zn–H₂O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" as the major product. The structure of product "B" is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Joining propanone and ethanal at their carbonyl carbons gives A = (CH₃)₂C=CH–CH₃ (2-methylbut-2-ene). Markovnikov addition of HCl puts Cl on the more substituted carbon via the tertiary carbocation, giving 2-chloro-2-methylbutane. The secondary chloride would come from anti-Markovnikov orientation.
Q20NEET 2019 · Q75
What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K₄[Fe(CN)₆] based on crystal field theory?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Fe is +2 (d⁶) in an octahedral field; CN⁻ is a strong-field ligand causing pairing, so the configuration is t₂g⁶ e_g⁰ (low spin, diamagnetic). t₂g⁴ e_g² is the high-spin arrangement with weak-field ligands, and e/t₂ labels belong to tetrahedral fields.
Q21NEET 2019 · Q76
Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl₅ from the following:
Not quite — the answer is D.
PCl₅ is trigonal bipyramidal: equatorial bonds at 120°, axial bonds at 180°, and axial bonds longer because of greater repulsion. The longer, weaker axial bonds make PCl₅ quite reactive, so calling it non-reactive is incorrect.
Q22NEET 2019 · Q77
Which will make basic buffer?
Not quite — the answer is C.
10 mmol HCl neutralises 10 mmol of the 20 mmol NH₄OH, leaving 10 mmol NH₄OH with 10 mmol NH₄Cl: a weak base with its salt, i.e. a basic buffer. Excess NaOH with acetate is just a strong-base solution, and equal amounts of acid and base give only a salt.
Q23NEET 2019 · Q78
The major product of the following reaction is: phthalic acid (benzene-1,2-dicarboxylic acid) + NH₃ —strong heating→
Not quite — the answer is B.
Phthalic acid first forms the ammonium salt, then the amide, and on strong heating the amide nitrogen attacks the second carboxyl group with loss of water to give the cyclic phthalimide. The mono-amide is only an intermediate at moderate temperature.
Q24NEET 2019 · Q79
Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the correct code: Column-I: (a) XeF₄, (b) XeF₆, (c) XeOF₄, (d) XeO₃ Column-II: (i) pyramidal, (ii) square planar, (iii) distorted octahedral, (iv) square pyramidal
Not quite — the answer is B.
XeF₄ (4 bp + 2 lp) is square planar, XeF₆ (6 bp + 1 lp) is distorted octahedral, XeOF₄ (5 bp + 1 lp) is square pyramidal, and XeO₃ (3 bp + 1 lp) is pyramidal. Calling XeOF₄ pyramidal ignores its five bonded atoms.
Q25NEET 2019 · Q80
The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral, due to:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In MnO₄²⁻ and MnO₄⁻ the Mn is tetrahedrally σ-bonded to four O atoms, and π-bonding arises from overlap of filled oxygen p-orbitals with manganese d-orbitals (NCERT). Oxygen has no d-orbitals in its valence shell, so d–d overlap is impossible.
Q26NEET 2019 · Q81
Which of the following species is not stable?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Six large Cl atoms cannot fit around the small Si atom, and the Si–Cl lone-pair interaction is weak, so [SiCl₆]²⁻ is not known. [SiF₆]²⁻ is stable because F is small, and the larger Ge and Sn accommodate six ligands.
Q27NEET 2019 · Q82
For a cell involving one electron E°cell = 0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is: [Given that 2.303RT/F = 0.059 V at T = 298 K]
Not quite — the answer is C.
log K = nE°/0.059 = 1 × 0.59/0.059 = 10, so K = 1.0 × 10¹⁰. 10³⁰ would correspond to three electrons.
Q28NEET 2019 · Q86
In which case change in entropy is negative?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Combining two gaseous atoms into one molecule reduces the number of particles and hence disorder, so ΔS < 0. Evaporation, sublimation and isothermal expansion all increase entropy.
Q29NEET 2019 · Q87
Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible region?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Balmer lines (transitions ending at n = 2) lie in the visible region. Lyman lines (ending at n = 1) are ultraviolet; Paschen and Brackett are infrared.
Q30NEET 2019 · Q90
The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In water, basicity depends on inductive effect, solvation of the ammonium ion and steric hindrance together; for methyl amines this gives (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N. Trimethylamine as strongest is the gas-phase order, where solvation does not act.
Chemistry: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 9 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
9 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2019 · Q52
Among the following, the one that is not a green house gas is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
N₂O, CH₄ and O₃ all absorb infrared radiation and are greenhouse gases. SO₂ is an air pollutant responsible for acid rain, not a greenhouse gas.
Q2NEET 2019 · Q54
Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the cofactor. M is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
All enzymes that use ATP in phosphate transfer require Mg²⁺ as cofactor. Ca²⁺ is important in bones, muscle contraction and blood clotting, not as the ATP cofactor.
Q3NEET 2019 · Q61
The biodegradable polymer is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Nylon-2–nylon-6 is an alternating copolymer of glycine and amino caproic acid and is biodegradable. Nylon-6, nylon-6,6 and Buna-S are not biodegradable.
Q4NEET 2019 · Q73
Among the following, the narrow spectrum antibiotic is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Penicillin G acts mainly on Gram-positive bacteria and is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic. Ampicillin and amoxycillin are broad-spectrum semi-synthetic penicillins, and chloramphenicol is also broad spectrum.
Q5NEET 2019 · Q83
Which of the following is an amphoteric hydroxide?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Be(OH)₂ dissolves in both acids and alkalis (forming [Be(OH)₄]²⁻), so it is amphoteric. Mg(OH)₂, Ca(OH)₂ and Sr(OH)₂ are basic.
Q6NEET 2019 · Q84
A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume 20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas under the same conditions. The correct option about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Z = V_real/V_ideal = 0.8, which is less than 1. A gas more compressible than ideal has dominant intermolecular attractions; repulsions dominate only when Z > 1.
Q7NEET 2019 · Q85
A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy 75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
In hcp there is one octahedral void per anion. Cations fill 3/4 of them, so C : A = 3/4 : 1 = 3 : 4, giving C₃A₄. C₄A₃ inverts the ratio.
Q8NEET 2019 · Q88
The method used to remove temporary hardness of water is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Clark's method adds slaked lime, which precipitates the bicarbonates of Ca and Mg responsible for temporary hardness; it removes only temporary hardness. Calgon, ion-exchange and synthetic resins are used for permanent hardness (and also remove temporary hardness, but are not the specific method for it).
Q9NEET 2019 · Q89
Which one is malachite from the following?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Malachite is the basic copper carbonate CuCO₃·Cu(OH)₂. CuFeS₂ is copper pyrites and Fe₃O₄ is magnetite.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2019 Chemistry
- Equilibrium3 Q
- Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers2 Q
- Structure of Atom2 Q
- Electrochemistry2 Q
- Hydrocarbons2 Q
- Chemical Kinetics2 Q
- Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques1 Q
- Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure1 Q
- Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties1 Q
- Biomolecules1 Q
- Haloalkanes and Haloarenes1 Q
- Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry1 Q
- Solutions1 Q
- Coordination Compounds1 Q
- Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids1 Q
- The d- and f-Block Elements1 Q
- Thermodynamics1 Q
- Amines1 Q
NEET 2019 Biology questions
72 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2019 · Q91
The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro called upon all nations to take measures for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilisation of its benefits (Convention on Biological Diversity). CO₂ reduction targets came with the Kyoto Protocol, and phasing out CFCs was the aim of the Montreal Protocol.
Q2NEET 2019 · Q92
Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the newborn infants because it contains :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Colostrum is rich in IgA antibodies, which give the newborn passive immunity. Cells like NK cells, monocytes and macrophages are not the protective component that colostrum is valued for.
Q3NEET 2019 · Q93
Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the following :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Bulliform (motor) cells in the upper epidermis of grass leaves lose water and become flaccid during water stress, so the leaf rolls inwards to cut water loss. Closing stomata reduces transpiration but does not by itself roll the leaf.
Q4NEET 2019 · Q94
The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The short arm of a chromosome is called the p-arm (petite) and the long arm the q-arm. Writing them the other way round reverses the convention.
Q5NEET 2019 · Q95
Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
2 C₅₁H₉₈O₆ + 145 O₂ → 102 CO₂ + 98 H₂O + energy, so RQ = 102/145 ≈ 0.7. RQ values for fats are below 1 because fats need more oxygen for oxidation; values like 0.07 are off by a factor of ten.
Q6NEET 2019 · Q96
Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Statins, produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus, competitively inhibit the enzyme of cholesterol synthesis and lower blood cholesterol. Cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressant and streptokinase is a clot buster.
Q7NEET 2019 · Q98
Which of the following is the most important cause for animals and plants being driven to extinction ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most important cause of biodiversity loss among the 'Evil Quartet'. Alien species invasion and over-exploitation are real causes but contribute less.
Q8NEET 2019 · Q99
Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The hypothalamus contains centres that control body temperature, hunger and thirst. The medulla controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes, not temperature.
Q9NEET 2019 · Q100
Consider following features : (a) Organ system level of organisation (b) Bilateral symmetry (c) True coelomates with segmentation of body Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics.
Not quite — the answer is A.
Annelids, arthropods and chordates are all bilateral, organ-system level, true coelomates with metameric segmentation. Molluscs are coelomate but unsegmented, so any group including Mollusca fails.
Q10NEET 2019 · Q101
Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In the cockroach the oesophagus opens into a sac-like crop that stores food, followed by the grinding gizzard; the midgut then leads to the hindgut made of ileum, colon and rectum. The gizzard comes after the crop, not before it.
Q11NEET 2019 · Q103
Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease, tetany comes from low blood Ca²⁺, and botulism is a bacterial toxin poisoning.
Q12NEET 2019 · Q104
The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Ciliated epithelium lines hollow organs such as the bronchioles and fallopian tubes, where cilia move mucus or the ovum in one direction. Ducts of glands such as bile, pancreatic and salivary ducts are lined by cuboidal or columnar epithelium without cilia.
Q13NEET 2019 · Q105
Match the Column - I with Column - II : (a) P - wave — (i) Depolarisation of ventricles (b) QRS complex — (ii) Repolarisation of ventricles (c) T - wave — (iii) Coronary ischemia (d) Reduction in the size of T - wave — (iv) Depolarisation of atria (v) Repolarisation of atria Select the correct option.
Not quite — the answer is A.
The P-wave is atrial depolarisation, the QRS complex is ventricular depolarisation and the T-wave is ventricular repolarisation. A reduced or flattened T-wave indicates coronary ischemia; atrial repolarisation is hidden in the QRS complex and is not matched to any wave.
Q14NEET 2019 · Q106
Which one of the following is not a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
A botanical garden keeps plants away from their natural habitat, so it is ex situ conservation. Biosphere reserves, wildlife sanctuaries and sacred groves protect species in their natural habitat.
Q15NEET 2019 · Q107
In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Individuals with the average (intermediate) weight survive while both extremes die, which is stabilizing selection. Disruptive selection would favour both extremes, and directional selection would favour only one extreme.
Q16NEET 2019 · Q108
The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Interphase runs G₁ (growth), then S (DNA synthesis), then G₂ (preparation for division), followed by the M phase. DNA synthesis comes between the two gap phases, not after G₂.
Q17NEET 2019 · Q109
How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Steroid hormones are lipid soluble; they enter the cell, bind intracellular receptors and the hormone-receptor complex binds the genome to regulate gene expression. cAMP second messengers are used by protein/peptide hormones acting on membrane receptors.
Q18NEET 2019 · Q110
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Lysosomes are membrane-bound vesicles formed by packaging in the Golgi apparatus, not the endoplasmic reticulum. They do contain many acid hydrolases active at acidic pH.
Q19NEET 2019 · Q111
Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering plants is incorrect ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
After fertilisation ovules develop into seeds; the embryo sac forms inside the ovule before fertilisation. The ovary becoming the fruit, the zygote the embryo and the central cell (primary endosperm nucleus) the endosperm are all correct.
Q20NEET 2019 · Q112
Concanavalin A is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Concanavalin A is a lectin, a carbohydrate-binding protein from jack bean, listed among secondary metabolites. Alkaloids such as morphine and essential oils such as lemongrass oil are different classes.
Q21NEET 2019 · Q113
Which one of the following equipments is essentially required for growing microbes on a large scale, for industrial production of enzymes ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Large volumes (100–1000 litres) of culture are grown in bioreactors, which provide optimal temperature, pH, aeration and mixing. A sludge digester is used in sewage treatment, not enzyme production.
Q22NEET 2019 · Q115
Purines found both in DNA and RNA are :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The purines adenine and guanine occur in both DNA and RNA. Cytosine, thymine and uracil are pyrimidines, and thymine is found only in DNA.
Q23NEET 2019 · Q116
Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system.
Not quite — the answer is B.
Sperms pass from seminiferous tubules to the rete testis, then vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct and urethra, leaving through the urethral meatus. The inguinal canal is the passage the vas deferens takes through the abdominal wall, not a duct in the sequence.
Q24NEET 2019 · Q117
Match the hominids with their correct brain size : (a) Homo habilis — (i) 900 cc (b) Homo neanderthalensis — (ii) 1350 cc (c) Homo erectus — (iii) 650-800 cc (d) Homo sapiens — (iv) 1400 cc Select the correct option.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Per NCERT, Homo habilis had a brain of 650–800 cc, Homo erectus about 900 cc, Neanderthal man about 1400 cc and modern Homo sapiens about 1350 cc. The trap is assuming modern humans have the largest brain; Neanderthals had a slightly larger one.
Q25NEET 2019 · Q118
Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are :
Not quite — the answer is B.
De Vries described mutations as large, sudden, random and directionless, in contrast to Darwin's small, directional variations. 'Small' describes Darwinian variation, not mutation.
Q26NEET 2019 · Q119
Which of the following pair of organelles does not contain DNA ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Lysosomes and vacuoles are single-membrane bound organelles without their own DNA. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous and carry their own circular DNA, so any pair containing them is wrong.
Q27NEET 2019 · Q120
Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Asthma, triggered by allergens and pollutants, is difficulty in breathing with wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles. Fibrosis and alveolar wall damage describe occupational lung disease and emphysema respectively.
Q28NEET 2019 · Q121
Select the incorrect statement.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Birds show ZW–ZZ sex determination: females (ZW) are heterogametic, so the sex of the chick depends on the egg, not the sperm. Male Drosophila are XY, male grasshoppers are XO (half the sperms lack an X), and the human Y is much shorter than the X.
Q29NEET 2019 · Q122
DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with :
Not quite — the answer is B.
In the NCERT protocol, purified DNA is precipitated by adding chilled ethanol and appears as fine threads. Chloroform is used to remove proteins, not to precipitate DNA.
Q30NEET 2019 · Q123
Select the correct group of biocontrol agents.
Not quite — the answer is B.
Trichoderma (fungal biocontrol of plant pathogens), baculoviruses (insect pathogens) and Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt toxin against caterpillars) are all biocontrol agents. Tobacco mosaic virus and aphids are plant pests, while Rhizobium, Nostoc and Azospirillum are biofertilisers.
Q31NEET 2019 · Q125
Match the following organisms with the products they produce : (a) Lactobacillus — (i) Cheese (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae — (ii) Curd (c) Aspergillus niger — (iii) Citric Acid (d) Acetobacter aceti — (iv) Bread (v) Acetic Acid Select the correct option.
Not quite — the answer is B.
Lactobacillus converts milk to curd, Saccharomyces cerevisiae (baker's yeast) leavens bread, Aspergillus niger produces citric acid and Acetobacter aceti produces acetic acid. Swapping citric and acetic acid between the fungus and the bacterium is the common error.
Q32NEET 2019 · Q127
In some plants, the female gamete develops into embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon is known as :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Development of an embryo from the female gamete without fertilisation is parthenogenesis. Parthenocarpy is development of a fruit without fertilisation, and syngamy is the fusion of gametes itself.
Q33NEET 2019 · Q128
Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Residual, persistent nucellus in seeds such as black pepper and beet is called perisperm. Tegmen is the inner seed coat and hilum is the scar where the seed was attached to the stalk.
Q34NEET 2019 · Q129
What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
One centimorgan (map unit) is the distance between genes on a chromosome that gives 1% recombination (crossing over). 50% recombination is the maximum and indicates unlinked genes.
Q35NEET 2019 · Q130
What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Stroke volume = end-diastolic volume − end-systolic volume = 100 − 50 = 50 mL. Heart rate = cardiac output ÷ stroke volume = 5000 mL ÷ 50 mL = 100 beats per minute. Using the 72 beats/min resting value or dividing by 100 mL gives the wrong answer.
Q36NEET 2019 · Q132
Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The counter-current mechanism keeps the medullary interstitium increasingly hyperosmotic towards the inner medulla, which draws water out of the collecting duct and concentrates urine. Low ADH levels do the opposite and produce dilute urine.
Q37NEET 2019 · Q133
Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The electron transport chain enzymes are located in the inner mitochondrial membrane (on the cristae), not the outer membrane. The outer membrane is porous, the inner membrane forms cristae, and the matrix holds circular DNA and 70S ribosomes.
Q38NEET 2019 · Q135
Cells in G₀ phase :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Cells that stop dividing exit G₁ and enter the inactive G₀ (quiescent) stage, where they stay metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on. They have not entered or permanently ended the cycle; NCERT describes this as exiting.
Q39NEET 2019 · Q137
Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
In the sea the standing biomass of phytoplankton is far smaller than that of the fish feeding on them, so the pyramid of biomass is inverted. The pyramid of energy can never be inverted, and the grassland pyramid of numbers is upright.
Q40NEET 2019 · Q138
Placentation, in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
In parietal placentation (e.g. mustard, Argemone) ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or its peripheral part. In axile placentation ovules sit on a central axis in a multilocular ovary, and in free central they sit on a central axis without septa.
Q41NEET 2019 · Q141
Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Expiratory capacity = tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume = 500 + 1000 = 1500 mL. Residual volume is not part of it; adding it gives 2700 mL, which is the trap (that sum would be functional residual capacity plus tidal volume).
Q42NEET 2019 · Q142
What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
In double fertilisation one male gamete fuses with the egg (syngamy) and the other fuses with the two polar nuclei of the central cell (triple fusion) to form the primary endosperm nucleus. Neither gamete fuses with a synergid nucleus.
Q43NEET 2019 · Q144
Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The binomial is written with a capital genus and small-letter specific epithet, followed by the abbreviated author name 'Linn.' when Linnaeus described it. Capitalising 'Indica' breaks the rule, and leaving out the author does not show who first described it.
Q44NEET 2019 · Q145
Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement.
Not quite — the answer is B.
A restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic sequence and cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone of both strands at specific positions, so the claim that it cuts only one of the two strands is the incorrect statement. Cutting at an identified position within the DNA is exactly what an endonuclease does, so that statement is correct.
Q45NEET 2019 · Q147
In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F₁ generation, pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F₂ generation showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :
Not quite — the answer is D.
In incomplete dominance the alleles still segregate during gamete formation, which is why the F₂ shows a 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white ratio; so saying the law of segregation does not apply is incorrect. Only the principle of dominance fails here, because the heterozygote is intermediate.
Q46NEET 2019 · Q148
Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalyzed by :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Hexokinase phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate using ATP. Phosphofructokinase catalyses the later phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.
Q47NEET 2019 · Q149
Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Heroin (smack) is diacetylmorphine, obtained by acetylation of morphine extracted from the poppy plant. Glycosylation adds sugar groups and does not produce heroin.
Q48NEET 2019 · Q150
Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Progestasert and LNG-20 release progestogen into the uterus. Multiload 375 is a copper-releasing IUD, Lippes loop is non-medicated, and vaults are barrier devices.
Q49NEET 2019 · Q151
A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
p = 0.4 so q = 0.6. By Hardy–Weinberg, AA = p² = 0.16, Aa = 2pq = 2 × 0.4 × 0.6 = 0.48 and aa = q² = 0.36. Forgetting the factor 2 in 2pq gives 0.24, the main trap.
Q50NEET 2019 · Q152
Which of the following is true for Golden rice ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Golden rice is a transgenic rice enriched in β-carotene, the precursor of vitamin A; the original version carried a phytoene synthase gene from daffodil. Pest resistance with a Bt gene describes Bt crops, not golden rice.
Q51NEET 2019 · Q153
Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish without fungal association. This is because :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Pinus has an obligate association with mycorrhizal fungi; its seeds do not germinate and establish without them. An immature embryo or hard seed coat would cause dormancy but would not explain the need for a fungus.
Q52NEET 2019 · Q154
Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by recombinant DNA technology ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Because the genetic code is nearly universal, a bacterium reads the codons of the human insulin gene the same way a human cell does and makes the same polypeptide. Redundancy (degeneracy) and specificity are real features but do not explain expression across species.
Q53NEET 2019 · Q156
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The infective part of a virus is its nucleic acid (DNA or RNA); the protein coat (capsid) only protects it. Viroids are naked RNA without a protein coat, and prions are abnormally folded proteins.
Q54NEET 2019 · Q157
Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics : (a) Pila — (i) Flame cells (b) Bombyx — (ii) Comb plates (c) Pleurobrachia — (iii) Radula (d) Taenia — (iv) Malpighian tubules Select the correct option from the following :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Pila, a mollusc, has a rasping radula; Bombyx, an insect, excretes by Malpighian tubules; Pleurobrachia, a ctenophore, swims with comb plates; and Taenia, a flatworm, has flame cells. Giving comb plates to the silkworm is the main mix-up.
Q55NEET 2019 · Q158
Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In the Human Genome Project, ESTs identified all the genes that are expressed as RNA. Sequence annotation, the other approach, sequenced the whole genome including non-coding parts.
Q56NEET 2019 · Q159
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Yeasts are unicellular fungi without hyphae, so describing them as filamentous is wrong. Morels and truffles are edible ascomycetes, Claviceps yields ergot alkaloids and LSD, and conidia are exogenous while ascospores form inside asci.
Q57NEET 2019 · Q160
Match Column - I with Column - II. (a) Saprophyte — (i) Symbiotic association of fungi with plant roots (b) Parasite — (ii) Decomposition of dead organic materials (c) Lichens — (iii) Living on living plants or animals (d) Mycorrhiza — (iv) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Saprophytes decompose dead organic matter, parasites live on living plants or animals, lichens are algae–fungus associations and mycorrhizae are fungus–root associations. Swapping lichens and mycorrhiza is the usual trap.
Q58NEET 2019 · Q161
Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
GLUT4, found in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue, is moved to the cell membrane in response to insulin, making glucose uptake there insulin-dependent. GLUT1, GLUT2 and GLUT3 transport glucose independently of insulin.
Q59NEET 2019 · Q162
Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Graft rejection is due to cell-mediated immunity, in which T-lymphocytes recognise the graft as non-self. Humoral immunity works through antibodies and is not the main cause of graft rejection.
Q60NEET 2019 · Q163
Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in : (a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body (b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions (c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract (d) Reduced RBC production Which of the following options is the most appropriate ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
A dialyser removes urea and excess K⁺ from blood, so nitrogenous waste and potassium do not build up. It cannot do the endocrine work of the kidney: no erythropoietin, so RBC production falls, and no activation of vitamin D (calcitriol), so calcium absorption from the gut falls.
Q61NEET 2019 · Q165
The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes was explained by :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Alfred Sturtevant, Morgan's student, used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of distance and mapped genes. Morgan discovered linkage and coined the term recombination but did not build the map.
Q62NEET 2019 · Q166
Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products : (a) i gene — (i) β-galactosidase (b) z gene — (ii) Permease (c) a gene — (iii) Repressor (d) y gene — (iv) Transacetylase Select the correct option.
Not quite — the answer is C.
The i gene codes for the repressor, z for β-galactosidase, y for permease and a for transacetylase. Swapping the products of the y and a genes is the common error.
Q63NEET 2019 · Q167
It takes very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which combination of hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the year to increase yield ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Auxins (such as NAA) induce flowering in pineapple, and ethylene also promotes synchronised flowering in pineapple. Abscisic acid is a growth inhibitor and would not promote flowering.
Q64NEET 2019 · Q169
Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Trichoderma species are free-living fungi in root ecosystems that act against several plant pathogens. Anabaena is a nitrogen-fixing biofertiliser and Chlorella is a source of single cell protein.
Q65NEET 2019 · Q170
Phloem in gymnosperms lacks :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Gymnosperm phloem has sieve cells and albuminous cells but lacks both sieve tubes and companion cells. Saying it lacks only one of these leaves out the other.
Q66NEET 2019 · Q172
Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of following mRNA ? 5′ AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3′
Not quite — the answer is D.
The mRNA reads AAC AGC GGU GCU AUU; positions 7–9 form the whole codon GGU, so deleting them removes one amino acid and the downstream codons GCU AUU stay in frame. Inserting or deleting one or two bases shifts every codon after that point (frameshift).
Q67NEET 2019 · Q173
The concept of "Omnis cellula-e cellula" regarding cell division was first proposed by :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Rudolf Virchow (1855) explained that cells divide and new cells arise from pre-existing cells (Omnis cellula-e cellula), modifying the cell theory. Schleiden and Schwann proposed the original cell theory but could not explain how new cells form.
Q68NEET 2019 · Q174
What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll worm ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The inactive Bt protoxin crystals are solubilised and activated by the alkaline pH of the insect gut, after which the toxin binds midgut cells and creates pores. An acidic pH does not activate it, which is why it is harmless in the acidic human stomach.
Q69NEET 2019 · Q175
Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid.
Not quite — the answer is D.
Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi and confirmed by the Widal test. The anthrone test detects carbohydrates, and Streptococcus pneumoniae causes pneumonia.
Q70NEET 2019 · Q176
What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development, gynaecomastia, and is sterile ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Klinefelter's syndrome (47, XXY) gives overall masculine development with feminine features such as gynaecomastia, and the individuals are sterile. Turner's syndrome (45, XO) affects females.
Q71NEET 2019 · Q179
Match the following hormones with the respective disease : (a) Insulin — (i) Addison's disease (b) Thyroxin — (ii) Diabetes insipidus (c) Corticoids — (iii) Acromegaly (d) Growth Hormone — (iv) Goitre (v) Diabetes mellitus Select the correct option.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Insulin deficiency causes diabetes mellitus, thyroxine disorders cause goitre, deficient adrenal corticoids cause Addison's disease and excess growth hormone in adults causes acromegaly. Diabetes insipidus is due to ADH deficiency, not insulin.
Q72NEET 2019 · Q180
Select the correct option.
Not quite — the answer is D.
Ribs 1–7 join the sternum directly (vertebrosternal), ribs 8–10 join the 7th rib through hyaline cartilage (vertebrochondral or false ribs) and ribs 11–12 are free ventrally (vertebral or floating ribs). So the 11th and 12th pairs are not connected to the sternum and not all ribs reach it.
Biology: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 10 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
10 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2019 · Q97
Match the following structures with their respective location in organs : (a) Crypts of Lieberkühn — (i) Pancreas (b) Glisson's Capsule — (ii) Duodenum (c) Islets of Langerhans — (iii) Small intestine (d) Brunner's Glands — (iv) Liver Select the correct option from the following :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Crypts of Lieberkühn are intestinal glands of the small intestine, Glisson's capsule covers the hepatic lobules of the liver, islets of Langerhans are the endocrine part of the pancreas, and Brunner's glands are submucosal glands of the duodenum. Placing Brunner's glands in the liver or Glisson's capsule in the duodenum is the usual mix-up.
Q2NEET 2019 · Q102
Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly responsible for green house effect ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Carbon dioxide is the largest contributor to the enhanced greenhouse effect, followed by methane. Oxygen and nitrogen do not absorb infrared radiation significantly.
Q3NEET 2019 · Q126
What is the direction of movement of sugars in phloem ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Phloem moves sugars from source to sink, and since sources and sinks change with season, translocation can be upward or downward, i.e. bidirectional. Xylem flow, by contrast, is unidirectional upward.
Q4NEET 2019 · Q134
Xylem translocates :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Xylem carries water and minerals, and also some organic nitrogen and hormones such as cytokinins from the root to the shoot. The options with 'only' leave out these organic solutes.
Q5NEET 2019 · Q136
Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of Annual Rings in trees ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Annual rings are prominent in temperate trees because the cambium is very active in spring and less active in autumn, producing distinct bands; they are indistinct in tropical trees. The other statements about spring/autumn wood and climatic control of cambium are correct.
Q6NEET 2019 · Q139
Which of the following protocols did aim for reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into the atmosphere ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The Montreal Protocol (1987) was signed to control emission of ozone-depleting substances such as CFCs. The Kyoto Protocol deals with greenhouse gases causing global warming.
Q7NEET 2019 · Q143
What is the site of perception of photoperiod necessary for induction of flowering in plants ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Leaves perceive the photoperiod and send a floral stimulus to the shoot apex, where flowers form. The shoot apex is the site of flowering, not of perception.
Q8NEET 2019 · Q168
Identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various enzymes.
Not quite — the answer is B.
Goblet cells secrete mucus, which lubricates the gut lining and protects it from digestive enzymes and acid. Chief cells secrete pepsinogen and oxyntic cells secrete HCl, which are the agents the lining needs protection from.
Q9NEET 2019 · Q177
Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, has proved to be a good material for :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Polyblend, developed by Ahmed Khan in Bangalore, is mixed with bitumen to lay roads, increasing water repellence and road life. It is not used as a fertiliser or to make new plastic goods.
Q10NEET 2019 · Q178
Which of these following methods is the most suitable for disposal of nuclear waste ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
It is recommended that nuclear waste be pre-treated, stored in suitable shielded containers and buried within rocks about 500 m deep below the Earth's surface. Dumping under the ocean or Antarctic ice risks contaminating those ecosystems.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2019 Biology
- Cell: The Unit of Life5 Q
- Molecular Basis of Inheritance5 Q
- Principles of Inheritance and Variation5 Q
- Human Health and Disease4 Q
- Microbes in Human Welfare4 Q
- Evolution4 Q
- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants4 Q
- Biodiversity and Conservation3 Q
- Chemical Coordination and Integration3 Q
- Biotechnology: Principles and Processes3 Q
- Biological Classification3 Q
- Anatomy of Flowering Plants2 Q
- Respiration in Plants2 Q
- Animal Kingdom2 Q
- Structural Organisation in Animals2 Q
- Locomotion and Movement2 Q
- Body Fluids and Circulation2 Q
- Cell Cycle and Cell Division2 Q
- Breathing and Exchange of Gases2 Q
- Excretory Products and Their Elimination2 Q
- Biotechnology and Its Applications2 Q
- Neural Control and Coordination1 Q
- Biomolecules1 Q
- Human Reproduction1 Q
- Ecosystem1 Q
- Morphology of Flowering Plants1 Q
- The Living World1 Q
- Reproductive Health1 Q
- Plant Kingdom1 Q
- Plant Growth and Development1 Q
About this paper
How many questions from NEET 2019 are on this page?
159 questions (Physics 38, Chemistry 39, Biology 82). Questions that need a diagram we could not reproduce, or whose wording in the source was unclear, are left out.
Are these the original questions?
Yes. The questions and options are as set in the NEET 2019 paper, conducted by NTA. The answer to every question was checked by the RankUp team, and the explanations are RankUp's own.
Is NEET 2019 useful for NEET 2027?
Yes. The NEET syllabus is built on the same NCERT books. 21 questions here are on topics NCERT has since dropped; they are listed separately so you can skip them.
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