AIPMT 2007 Prelims Question PaperPhysics, Chemistry and Biology, with checked answers and solutions
By the RankUp team, founded by Dr. Deepak Sahu (MBBS Gold Medalist, NEET PG AIR 1731) · Updated
178 questions from the AIPMT 2007 Prelims paper, conducted by CBSE. Tap an option to check your answer and read why it is right. Each subject has a free PDF with the answer key and explanations.
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- AIPMT 2007 Prelims
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AIPMT 2007 Prelims Physics questions
35 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q2
A beam of electron passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move
Not quite — the answer is A.
With only the magnetic field, the force qv × B is always perpendicular to the velocity, which is itself perpendicular to B, so the electrons move in a circle. A parabolic path needs a constant force such as an electric field, which has been switched off.
Q2AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q3
The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x-axis is given by x = 9t² − t³ where x is in metres and t in second. What will be the position of this particle when it achieves maximum speed along the +ve x direction?
Not quite — the answer is A.
v = dx/dt = 18t − 3t² and a = 18 − 6t; speed is maximum when a = 0, i.e. t = 3 s. Then x = 9(9) − 27 = 54 m. 81 m is just the 9t² term without subtracting t³.
Q3AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q4
A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at a later time are (√3, 3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of
Not quite — the answer is B.
For a straight line from the origin, tan θ = y/x = 3/√3 = √3, so θ = 60°. 30° would be the angle with the y-axis instead.
Q4AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q5
A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to X with a uniform speed vd. The average speed for this round trip is
Not quite — the answer is D.
For equal distances d each way, total time = d/vu + d/vd, so average speed = 2d/(d/vu + d/vd) = 2vu vd/(vu + vd), the harmonic mean. The arithmetic mean (vu + vd)/2 is wrong because more time is spent at the lower speed.
Q5AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q6
Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e)² after a time interval
Not quite — the answer is C.
N_A/N_B = e^(−5λt)/e^(−λt) = e^(−4λt). Setting this equal to e^(−2) gives 4λt = 2, so t = 1/(2λ). Answers like 2λ have the wrong dimensions for a time.
Q6AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q8
In a radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted β -particles are
Not quite — the answer is A.
In β⁻ decay a neutron inside the nucleus changes into a proton, emitting an electron (and an antineutrino). Electrons do not exist inside the nucleus beforehand, and orbital electrons are not involved.
Q7AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q9
The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is
Not quite — the answer is D.
If x = A sin ωt, then v = Aω cos ωt and a = −Aω² sin ωt, so acceleration leads velocity by π/2 = 0.5π. A phase difference of π exists between displacement and acceleration, not velocity and acceleration.
Q8AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q10
In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular path of radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio (charge on the ion/mass of the ion) will be proportional to
Not quite — the answer is A.
qV = ½mv² and R = mv/(qB) give R² = 2mV/(qB²), so q/m = 2V/(B²R²) ∝ 1/R². Answering 1/R ignores that v itself depends on q/m.
Q9AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q11
A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec² and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/sec. In a time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in radian) of
Not quite — the answer is A.
θ = ω₀t + ½αt² = 2.0 × 2 + ½ × 3.0 × 4 = 4 + 6 = 10 rad. 4 rad counts only the initial-speed term.
Q10AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q13
The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 10¹⁴ Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The refractive index of material will be
Not quite — the answer is B.
Speed in the material v = fλ = 2 × 10¹⁴ × 5 × 10⁻⁷ = 1 × 10⁸ m/s, so n = c/v = 3 × 10⁸/1 × 10⁸ = 3.00. 1.50 comes from a slip in the power of ten.
Q11AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q14
A nucleus ᴬZX has mass represented by M(A, Z). If Mp and Mn denote the mass of proton and neutron respectively and B.E. the binding energy in MeV, then
Not quite — the answer is A.
Binding energy is the mass defect times c²: B.E. = [ZMp + (A − Z)Mn − M(A, Z)]c². The expression without c² is a mass, not an energy, and the reversed sign would give a negative binding energy.
Q12AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q16
If the nucleus ²⁷₁₃Al has nuclear radius of about 3.6 fm, then ¹²⁵₃₂Te would have its radius approximately as
Not quite — the answer is D.
R ∝ A^(1/3), so R_Te = 3.6 × (125/27)^(1/3) = 3.6 × 5/3 = 6.0 fm. Scaling the radius in proportion to A instead of its cube root would give a much larger value.
Q13AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q17
A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity V. If μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time
Not quite — the answer is D.
Friction gives a deceleration μg, so the block stops when V − μgt = 0, i.e. t = V/(μg). V/g ignores the friction coefficient.
Q14AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q18
A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, at time t, given by f = f₀(1 − t/T), where f₀ and T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f = 0, the particle's velocity (vx) is
Not quite — the answer is C.
f = 0 at t = T. v = ∫₀ᵀ f₀(1 − t/T) dt = f₀T − f₀T/2 = ½f₀T. f₀T would be the velocity if the acceleration stayed at f₀ throughout.
Q15AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q20
Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Balance requires P/Q = R/S', so the effective arm S' = 2 Ω. S in parallel with 6 Ω: 6S/(S + 6) = 2 gives 4S = 12, so S = 3 Ω. Answering 2 Ω forgets that S is in parallel with the 6 Ω.
Q16AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q23
A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately
Not quite — the answer is B.
Efficiency = output/input = 100/(220 × 0.5) = 100/110 ≈ 0.91, i.e. about 90%. 50% comes from comparing the voltages instead of the powers.
Q17AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q24
Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of time T and of current I, would be
Not quite — the answer is C.
R = V/I and V = W/q has dimensions ML²T⁻²/(IT) = ML²T⁻³I⁻¹, so R = ML²T⁻³I⁻². ML²T⁻³I⁻¹ is the dimension of potential difference, not resistance.
Q18AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q25
A uniform rod AB of length l, and mass m is free to rotate about point A. The rod is released from rest in the horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of the rod about A is ml²/3, the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be
Not quite — the answer is C.
Torque of gravity about A is mg(l/2) = Iα = (ml²/3)α, so α = 3g/(2l). mgl/2 is the torque itself, not the angular acceleration.
Q19AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q26
A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a velocity v along the straight line AB. If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA when it is at A and LB when it is at B, then
Not quite — the answer is A.
L = m v d, where d is the perpendicular distance from O to the line AB; this distance is the same for every point on the line, so LA = LB. The slope of AB changes d but not the equality between the two points.
Q20AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q27
The particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy K₀ cos² ωt. The maximum values of the potential energy and the total energy are respectively
Not quite — the answer is C.
Kinetic energy is maximum (K₀) at the mean position, where all energy is kinetic, so total energy = K₀. Potential energy is maximum at the extremes and also equals K₀. 2K₀ wrongly adds the two maxima.
Q21AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q29
Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 10¹⁴ Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10⁻³ W. The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the sources per second is
Not quite — the answer is D.
n = P/(hf) = 2 × 10⁻³/(6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ × 6.0 × 10¹⁴) = 2 × 10⁻³/3.98 × 10⁻¹⁹ ≈ 5 × 10¹⁵ per second. 5 × 10¹⁶ is a power-of-ten slip.
Q22AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q31
Two satellites of earth, S₁ and S₂ are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S₁ is four times the mass of S₂. Which one of the following statements is true?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Orbital speed v = √(GM/r) depends only on the orbit radius, so both move with the same speed (and period). Potential and kinetic energies are proportional to the satellite mass, so they differ by a factor of 4.
Q23AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q32
A⃗ and B⃗ are two vectors and θ is the angle between them, if |A⃗ × B⃗| = √3 (A⃗ · B⃗), the value of θ is
Not quite — the answer is D.
AB sin θ = √3 AB cos θ gives tan θ = √3, so θ = 60°. 30° would come from tan θ = 1/√3.
Q24AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q34
A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic moment μ is given by
Not quite — the answer is D.
The circulating charge is a current I = q/T = qv/(2πR); μ = I × πR² = qvR/2. qvR misses the factor ½.
Q25AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q35
The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. The kinetic energy of an electron in the first excited state is
Not quite — the answer is D.
En = −13.6/n² eV, so in the first excited state (n = 2) E = −3.4 eV. For a Bohr orbit kinetic energy = −E = 3.4 eV. 13.6 eV is the ground-state value.
Q26AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q36
A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the source is moved to a distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons liberated will be reduced by a factor of
Not quite — the answer is D.
The number of photoelectrons is proportional to intensity, which falls as 1/r². Doubling the distance from 0.5 m to 1.0 m reduces it by 2² = 4. A factor of 2 assumes intensity ∝ 1/r.
Q27AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q37
A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is
Not quite — the answer is B.
x = a sin ωt; x = a/2 when ωt = π/6, so t = (π/6)/(2π/T) = T/12. T/4 is the time to reach the full amplitude.
Q28AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q40
A black body is at 727° C. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to
Not quite — the answer is A.
By Stefan's law the emitted power ∝ T⁴ with T in kelvin: 727 + 273 = 1000 K, so rate ∝ (1000)⁴. Using 727 forgets to convert from Celsius.
Q29AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q41
The resistance of an ammeter is 13 Ω and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents upto 750 amperes by this meter. The value of shunt-resistance is
Not quite — the answer is A.
The meter still carries 100 A, so the shunt carries 650 A at the same voltage: S = 13 × 100/650 = 2 Ω. 0.2 Ω would be a power-of-ten slip.
Q30AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q42
An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is
Not quite — the answer is C.
1/6 = 1 − T₂/T₁ and 1/3 = 1 − (T₂ − 62)/T₁. Subtracting, 62/T₁ = 1/6, so T₁ = 372 K = 99°C. 62°C confuses the temperature drop with the source temperature.
Q31AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q43
The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are
Not quite — the answer is C.
In a plane EM wave, E and B oscillate in phase (both reach maxima together) and are perpendicular to each other and to the direction of propagation.
Q32AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q44
What is the value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with C = 10 μF and ω = 1000 s⁻¹ ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Current is maximum at resonance, ω²LC = 1: L = 1/(ω²C) = 1/(10⁶ × 10 × 10⁻⁶) = 0.1 H = 100 mH. R only sets the height of the peak, not where it occurs.
Q33AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q45
Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie temperature, then it will show
Not quite — the answer is D.
Above the Curie temperature thermal agitation destroys the domain alignment and a ferromagnet becomes paramagnetic. It does not become diamagnetic or lose all magnetic response.
Q34AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q47
Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. The time period of the motion
Not quite — the answer is B.
T = 2πR/v = 2πm/(qB); a larger speed gives a proportionally larger radius, so the period depends on neither R nor v.
Q35AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q49
Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at temperature t°C, the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the incident rays) at a distance R from the centre of the sun is (where σ is the Stefan's constant)
Not quite — the answer is C.
The sun radiates P = 4πr²σ(t + 273)⁴. At distance R this spreads over 4πR², giving r²σ(t + 273)⁴/R² per unit area. Options using t⁴ forget to convert to kelvin, and dividing by an extra 4π is wrong.
Physics: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 2 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
2 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q19
A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100Ω and an output impedance of 200Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Voltage gain Av = β(Rout/Rin), so β = 50 × 100/200 = 25. Power gain = Av × β = 50 × 25 = 1250. 1000 or 500 come from misusing the impedance ratio.
Q2AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q48
If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 0°C and the hot junction is kept at T°C then the relation between neutral temperature (Tn) and temperature of inversion (Ti) is
Not quite — the answer is D.
For a thermocouple with the cold junction at 0°C, the neutral temperature is the mean of the cold-junction and inversion temperatures, so Tn = (0 + Ti)/2 = Ti/2.
Chapter-wise split of AIPMT 2007 Prelims Physics
- Moving Charges and Magnetism4 Q
- Nuclei4 Q
- Motion in a Straight Line3 Q
- Oscillations3 Q
- System of Particles and Rotational Motion3 Q
- Motion in a Plane2 Q
- Current Electricity2 Q
- Alternating Current2 Q
- Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter2 Q
- Thermal Properties of Matter2 Q
- Ray Optics and Optical Instruments1 Q
- Laws of Motion1 Q
- Units and Measurements1 Q
- Gravitation1 Q
- Atoms1 Q
- Thermodynamics1 Q
- Electromagnetic Waves1 Q
- Magnetism and Matter1 Q
AIPMT 2007 Prelims Chemistry questions
40 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q21
A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a copper voltameter for 10 minutes. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30 × 10⁻⁵ g coulomb⁻¹, the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be
Not quite — the answer is C.
Faraday's first law: m = ZIt = 30 × 10⁻⁵ × 1.5 × 600 = 0.27 g. Forgetting to convert 10 minutes to 600 s gives a far smaller value.
Q2AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q51
Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary amine?
Not quite — the answer is A.
LiAlH₄ reduces methyl isocyanide CH₃–N≡C to CH₃–NH–CH₃, a secondary amine. Acetamide and methyl cyanide both give ethylamine (primary), and nitroethane also gives a primary amine.
Q3AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q52
RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to
Not quite — the answer is C.
The bases and phosphate groups are achiral; the chirality of DNA and RNA comes from the D-ribose/D-deoxyribose sugars. Natural nucleic acids contain D-, not L-, sugars.
Q4AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q54
A weak acid, HA, has a Ka of 1.00 × 10⁻⁵. If 0.100 mole of this acid dissolved in one litre of water, the percentage of acid dissociated at equilibrium is closest to
Not quite — the answer is A.
α = √(Ka/C) = √(1.00 × 10⁻⁵/0.100) = 1.00 × 10⁻², i.e. 1.00%. 0.100% would come from Ka/C without the square root.
Q5AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q55
The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as: H₂(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I₂(g) The reaction is of first order with respect to H₂(g) and ICl(g), following mechanisms were proposed. Mechanism A: H₂(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I₂(g) Mechanism B: H₂(g) + ICl(g) → HI(g) ; slow HI(g) + ICl(g) → HCl(g) + I₂(g) ; fast Which of the above mechanism(s) can be consistent with the given information about the reaction?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The observed rate law is rate = k[H₂][ICl]. Mechanism A, as a single step, would be second order in ICl. In mechanism B the slow step H₂ + ICl gives exactly rate = k[H₂][ICl], so only B is consistent.
Q6AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q56
The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by
Not quite — the answer is B.
A fuel cell converts the free-energy change into electrical work, while the total energy released is ΔH; efficiency = ΔG/ΔH. Ratios involving ΔS are not an efficiency.
Q7AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q57
Consider the following reactions: (i) H⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) = H₂O(l), ΔH = −X₁ kJ mol⁻¹ (ii) H₂(g) + ½O₂(g) = H₂O(l), ΔH = −X₂ kJ mol⁻¹ (iii) CO₂(g) + H₂(g) = CO(g) + H₂O, ΔH = −X₃ kJ mol⁻¹ (iv) C₂H₂(g) + (5/2)O₂(g) = 2CO₂(g) + H₂O(l), ΔH = −X₄ kJ mol⁻¹ Enthalpy of formation of H₂O(l) is
Not quite — the answer is D.
Enthalpy of formation is for forming 1 mol of the compound from elements in their standard states: H₂(g) + ½O₂(g) → H₂O(l), ΔH = −X₂. The neutralisation enthalpy −X₁ does not start from elements.
Q8AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q59
In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structure?
Not quite — the answer is C.
BrO₃⁻ and XeO₃ each have three bond pairs and one lone pair on the central atom, so both are trigonal pyramidal. SO₃²⁻ is pyramidal but NO₃⁻ is planar; BF₃ is planar but NF₃ pyramidal; SF₄ is see-saw but XeF₄ square planar.
Q9AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q60
Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin respectively?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Due to the inert pair effect, +2 is the more stable state for lead, while +4 is more stable for tin. So the characteristic states are +2 (Pb) and +4 (Sn).
Q10AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q62
In a first-order reaction A → B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M, then the half-life is
Not quite — the answer is C.
For a first-order reaction t½ = ln 2/k = 0.693/k, independent of the initial concentration. log 2/k uses the base-10 log, and 0.693/(0.5k) wrongly brings in the 0.5 M concentration.
Q11AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q63
Consider the following compounds. (i) C₆H₅COCl (ii) O₂N–C₆H₄–COCl (para) (iii) H₃C–C₆H₄–COCl (para) (iv) OHC–C₆H₄–COCl (para) The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Hydrolysis is a nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl carbon, faster when electron-withdrawing groups make it more positive. –NO₂ withdraws more strongly than –CHO, H is neutral and –CH₃ donates, so (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii).
Q12AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q64
Predict the product C obtained in the following reaction of butyne-1. CH₃CH₂–C≡CH + HCl → B —HI→ C
Not quite — the answer is C.
HCl adds by Markovnikov's rule to give CH₃CH₂C(Cl)=CH₂ as product B. HI then also adds Markovnikov, with I going to the carbon already carrying Cl (stabilised carbocation), giving CH₃CH₂C(I)(Cl)CH₃. Putting I and Cl on the terminal carbon would be anti-Markovnikov.
Q13AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q65
Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H₂SO₄ by mass and has a density of 1.80 g mL⁻¹. Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M H₂SO₄ solution is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Molarity of the concentrated acid = (98/98) mol per 100 g × 1.80 g/mL × 1000/100 = 18.0 M. V = (0.1 × 1000)/18.0 = 5.55 mL. 11.10 mL would result from treating the acid as 9 M.
Q14AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q66
Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl is called
Not quite — the answer is D.
Clemmensen reduction uses Zn–Hg and concentrated HCl to convert C=O into CH₂. Wolff–Kishner reduction does the same with hydrazine and KOH in ethylene glycol.
Q15AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q67
Given that bond energies of H–H and Cl–Cl are 430 kJ mol⁻¹ and 240 kJ mol⁻¹ respectively and ΔHf for HCl is −90 kJ mol⁻¹, bond enthalpy of HCl is
Not quite — the answer is B.
½H₂ + ½Cl₂ → HCl: ΔHf = ½(430) + ½(240) − x = −90, so x = 335 + 90 = 425 kJ mol⁻¹. 245 kJ mol⁻¹ subtracts the 90 instead of adding it.
Q16AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q68
Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidity in the given compounds?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Electron-withdrawing halogens stabilise the carboxylate ion, more so with higher electronegativity: F > Cl > Br, and unsubstituted acetic acid is weakest. So FCH₂COOH > ClCH₂COOH > BrCH₂COOH > CH₃COOH.
Q17AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q69
If there is no rotation of plane polarised light by a compound in a specific solvent, though to be chiral, it may mean that
Not quite — the answer is C.
A compound believed to be chiral can still show no rotation if it is present as a racemic mixture, where equal amounts of the two enantiomers cancel each other. 'Certainly meso' is too strong: a meso compound is not chiral at all, and a racemate explains the observation equally well.
Q18AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q71
Which of the following is water-soluble?
Not quite — the answer is D.
B-group vitamins (and vitamin C) are water-soluble. Vitamins A, D, E and K are fat-soluble and stored in the liver and adipose tissue.
Q19AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q73
0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹, the lowering in freezing point of the solution is
Not quite — the answer is B.
For HX ⇌ H⁺ + X⁻ with α = 0.2, i = 1 + α = 1.2. ΔTf = iKf m = 1.2 × 1.86 × 0.5 = 1.116 ≈ 1.12 K. 0.56 K ignores the van 't Hoff factor and rounds wrongly; the depression itself is a positive quantity.
Q20AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q75
If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately (log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69)
Not quite — the answer is A.
k = (2.303/60) log(100/40) = (2.303/60)(0.69 − 0.30) ≈ 0.0150 min⁻¹. t½ = 0.693/0.0150 ≈ 46 min, closest to 45 minutes. 50 minutes assumes a linear (zero-order) fall.
Q21AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q76
Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs? (en = NH₂CH₂CH₂NH₂)
Not quite — the answer is B.
cis-[Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺ has no plane of symmetry and exists as a pair of enantiomers. The other complexes show coordination or geometrical isomerism but no optical isomers ([Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ cis/trans are both achiral).
Q22AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q78
The d electron configurations of Cr²⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe²⁺ and Ni²⁺ are 3d⁴, 3d⁵, 3d⁶ and 3d⁸ respectively. Which one of the following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour? (At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28)
Not quite — the answer is B.
H₂O is a weak-field ligand, so the ions stay high-spin: Cr²⁺ (d⁴) 4, Mn²⁺ (d⁵) 5, Fe²⁺ (d⁶) 4 and Ni²⁺ (d⁸) 2 unpaired electrons. [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ has the fewest, so it is least paramagnetic; [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is the most.
Q23AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q80
Which of the compounds with molecular formula C₅H₁₀ yields acetone on ozonolysis?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Acetone needs a (CH₃)₂C= unit. 2-Methyl-2-butene (CH₃)₂C=CHCH₃ gives acetone + acetaldehyde on ozonolysis. 2-Methyl-1-butene gives butanone + formaldehyde, and cyclopentane has no double bond.
Q24AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q82
Which one of the following ionic species has the greatest proton affinity to form stable compound?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Proton affinity is greatest for the strongest base. NH₂⁻ is the conjugate base of NH₃, an extremely weak acid, so it is the strongest base here. F⁻, I⁻ and HS⁻ are conjugate bases of much stronger acids.
Q25AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q83
The following equilibrium constants are given: N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ ; K₁ N₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2NO ; K₂ H₂ + ½O₂ ⇌ H₂O ; K₃ The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH₃ by oxygen to give NO is
Not quite — the answer is D.
Target: 2NH₃ + (5/2)O₂ ⇌ 2NO + 3H₂O = (reverse of eq. 1) + (eq. 2) + 3 × (eq. 3). So K = K₂K₃³/K₁. Using K₃ only once ignores that three water molecules form.
Q26AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q84
Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution? (At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
Not quite — the answer is D.
Cr³⁺ (3d³) has a half-filled t₂g set and a very high hydration energy, making it the most stable in water. Ti³⁺ and V³⁺ are oxidised easily, and Mn³⁺ (d⁴) disproportionates.
Q27AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q85
The correct order of C–O bond length among CO, CO₃²⁻, CO₂ is
Not quite — the answer is C.
C–O bond order is about 3 in CO, 2 in CO₂ and 1⅓ in CO₃²⁻ (resonance). Higher bond order means a shorter bond, so CO < CO₂ < CO₃²⁻.
Q28AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q86
Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given acids?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Acid strength of chlorine oxoacids increases with the number of oxygen atoms, which raises chlorine's oxidation state and stabilises the conjugate base by delocalisation. So HOCl < HOClO < HOClO₂ < HOClO₃.
Q29AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q87
Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the corresponding alcohol and acid?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The Cannizzaro reaction (disproportionation into alcohol and acid salt with concentrated alkali) needs an aldehyde with no α-hydrogen, such as benzaldehyde. Butanal and phenylacetaldehyde have α-H and undergo aldol condensation instead.
Q30AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q88
For (i) I⁻, (ii) Cl⁻, (iii) Br⁻, the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be
Not quite — the answer is A.
In protic solvents the larger, more polarisable iodide is least solvated and the best nucleophile, so nucleophilicity increases Cl⁻ < Br⁻ < I⁻. The reverse order applies to basicity, not nucleophilicity.
Q31AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q89
Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25°C that contains 1 × 10⁻¹⁰ M of hydronium ions, i.e. H₃O⁺.
Not quite — the answer is A.
pH = −log(1 × 10⁻¹⁰) = 10, and at 25°C pOH = 14 − 10 = 4.000. 10 would be the pH itself, which is not an option.
Q32AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q90
Consider the following sets of quantum numbers (n, l, m, s): (i) 3, 0, 0, +1/2 (ii) 2, 2, 1, +1/2 (iii) 4, 3, −2, −1/2 (iv) 1, 0, −1, −1/2 (v) 3, 2, 3, +1/2 Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible?
Not quite — the answer is B.
(ii) is impossible because l must be less than n (l = 2 with n = 2), (iv) because m must lie between −l and +l (m = −1 with l = 0) and (v) because m = 3 exceeds l = 2. (i) and (iii) are valid, so the impossible sets are (ii), (iv) and (v).
Q33AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q91
The equilibrium constant of the reaction: Cu(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s) ; E° = 0.46 V at 298 K is
Not quite — the answer is C.
log K = nE°/0.0591 = 2 × 0.46/0.0591 = 15.57, so K = 10¹⁵·⁵⁷ ≈ 3.7 × 10¹⁵ ≈ 4.0 × 10¹⁵. Taking n = 1 would give a value near 10⁸.
Q34AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q93
The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following would be (i) benzene (ii) toluene (iii) chlorobenzene (iv) phenol
Not quite — the answer is C.
–OH strongly activates the ring by resonance, –CH₃ activates weakly by hyperconjugation, and –Cl deactivates (–I effect dominates). So phenol > toluene > benzene > chlorobenzene.
Q35AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q94
Which of the following anions is present in the chain structure of silicates?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Single-chain silicates (pyroxenes) share two oxygens per SiO₄ tetrahedron, giving the repeating unit (SiO₃²⁻)ₙ. (Si₂O₅²⁻)ₙ is the sheet silicate unit, SiO₄⁴⁻ is the orthosilicate and Si₂O₇⁶⁻ the pyrosilicate.
Q36AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q95
An element, X has the following isotopic composition: ²⁰⁰X : 90%, ¹⁹⁹X : 8.0%, ²⁰²X : 2.0% The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to
Not quite — the answer is D.
Average mass = 200 × 0.90 + 199 × 0.08 + 202 × 0.02 = 180 + 15.92 + 4.04 = 199.96 ≈ 200 amu. 201 amu would be a simple average of the three masses.
Q37AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q97
In the reaction: (CH₃)₂CH–CH₂–O–CH₂–CH₃ + HI —Heated→ Which of the following compounds will be formed?
Not quite — the answer is C.
With two primary alkyl groups, I⁻ attacks the less hindered carbon by SN2 after protonation of the ether oxygen. The ethyl carbon is less hindered than the isobutyl carbon, so the products are CH₃CH₂I and (CH₃)₂CHCH₂OH.
Q38AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q98
The product formed in Aldol condensation is
Not quite — the answer is A.
The aldol addition of an enolisable aldehyde or ketone gives a β-hydroxy aldehyde or β-hydroxy ketone (which may then dehydrate). The OH ends up on the β-carbon, not the α-carbon, and no ester or acid is formed.
Q39AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q99
The number of moles of KMnO₄ that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic solution is
Not quite — the answer is B.
SO₃²⁻ → SO₄²⁻ loses 2 electrons, while MnO₄⁻ → Mn²⁺ gains 5 in acidic medium. So 1 mol sulphite needs 2/5 mol KMnO₄. 4/5 counts the sulphite change twice.
Q40AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q100
Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Because of lanthanoid contraction, 4d and 5d elements of the same group have nearly identical radii (e.g. Zr and Hf) and very similar properties. Saying they have no similarities is therefore the incorrect statement; the others are true.
Chemistry: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 9 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
9 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q38
For a cubic crystal structure which one of the following relations indicating the cell characteristics is correct?
Not quite — the answer is C.
A cubic unit cell has all edges equal and all axial angles 90°: a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90°. Unequal edges with right angles describe an orthorhombic cell.
Q2AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q53
The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced using the assumption
Not quite — the answer is A.
Langmuir's model assumes a monolayer on equivalent adsorption sites, with no interaction between adsorbed molecules and a heat of adsorption independent of coverage. The other options contradict these assumptions.
Q3AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q58
The correct order of increasing thermal stability of K₂CO₃, MgCO₃, CaCO₃ and BeCO₃ is
Not quite — the answer is A.
Thermal stability of carbonates increases as the cation becomes larger and less polarising: Be²⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Ca²⁺, and K₂CO₃ (large, singly charged K⁺) is the most stable. So BeCO₃ < MgCO₃ < CaCO₃ < K₂CO₃.
Q4AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q61
Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before reduction is not true?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Metal sulphides have ΔG°f lower than CS₂ and H₂S, so carbon and hydrogen cannot reduce them; that is why sulphides are roasted to oxides first. The statement that C and H₂ are suitable reducing agents for sulphides is therefore the untrue one.
Q5AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q74
Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by froth flotation process. Which one of the following sulphide ores offers an exception and is concentrated by chemical leaching?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Argentite (Ag₂S) is treated by leaching with dilute NaCN solution (cyanide process) to dissolve silver as [Ag(CN)₂]⁻. Galena, copper pyrites and sphalerite are concentrated by froth flotation.
Q6AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q77
If NaCl is doped with 10⁻⁴ mol % of SrCl₂, the concentration of cation vacancies will be (NA = 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is B.
Each Sr²⁺ replaces two Na⁺ and creates one cation vacancy. 10⁻⁴ mol% = 10⁻⁶ mol SrCl₂ per mol NaCl, giving 10⁻⁶ × 6.02 × 10²³ = 6.02 × 10¹⁷ vacancies per mol. 6.02 × 10¹⁹ would ignore the percent conversion.
Q7AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q79
In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?
Not quite — the answer is A.
For small Mg²⁺ the hydration energy is very large and exceeds the lattice energy with the large sulphate ion, so MgSO₄ is soluble. For Sr, Ba and Ra sulphates the lattice energy dominates and they are sparingly soluble.
Q8AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q92
Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerisation?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Nylon-66 forms from hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid with loss of water, a condensation polymerisation. Teflon and polystyrene are addition polymers, and natural rubber is a polyisoprene addition polymer.
Q9AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q96
The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is
Not quite — the answer is D.
A simple cube has 1 atom per cell with a = 2r, so packing fraction = (4/3)πr³/(2r)³ = π/6 ≈ 0.52. π/(3√2) is the value for fcc.
Chapter-wise split of AIPMT 2007 Prelims Chemistry
- Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids5 Q
- Equilibrium4 Q
- Electrochemistry3 Q
- Chemical Kinetics3 Q
- Hydrocarbons3 Q
- Biomolecules2 Q
- Thermodynamics2 Q
- Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure2 Q
- Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry2 Q
- Haloalkanes and Haloarenes2 Q
- Coordination Compounds2 Q
- The d- and f-Block Elements2 Q
- Amines1 Q
- Solutions1 Q
- Structure of Atom1 Q
- Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers1 Q
- Redox Reactions1 Q
AIPMT 2007 Prelims Biology questions
76 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q101
ICBN stands for
Not quite — the answer is A.
ICBN is the International Code of Botanical Nomenclature, the internationally agreed set of rules for giving scientific names to plants. It is an international code, not an Indian one, and it deals with botanical names, not a congress on biological names.
Q2AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q102
Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Puffballs and bird's nest fungi both produce basidiospores on basidia inside a basidiocarp, so both are Basidiomycetes. Claviceps, Peziza and Morchella are sac fungi (Ascomycetes), so every other pair mixes in an ascomycete.
Q3AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q103
Biological organisation starts with
Not quite — the answer is D.
The levels of biological organisation begin with biomolecules at the submicroscopic molecular level, which then build organelles, cells, tissues and organisms. Atoms are the units of chemistry rather than of biological organisation, and the cell is a higher level built from those molecules.
Q4AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q104
Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned.
Not quite — the answer is D.
Dachigam National Park in Kashmir is known for protecting the Hangul (Kashmir stag), not the snow leopard. The Sunderbans are famous for the Bengal tiger, Periyar for elephants and the Rann of Kutch for the Indian wild ass, so those pairs are correct.
Q5AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q105
If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Antibodies are immunoglobulins, which belong to the globulin fraction of plasma proteins, so a low serum globulin level would confirm antibody deficiency. Albumins mainly maintain osmotic balance and fibrinogen is a clotting protein, so neither reflects antibody levels.
Q6AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q107
The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth
Not quite — the answer is C.
DNA polymerase can add nucleotides only in the 5'->3' direction, so on the lagging strand short Okazaki fragments are made 5'->3' and later joined by DNA ligase. This explains how that strand is built overall in the 3'->5' direction. No polymerase works 3'->5', and semi-conservative replication was proved by Meselson and Stahl, not by Okazaki fragments.
Q7AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q110
The concept of chemical evolution is based on
Not quite — the answer is C.
Chemical evolution (Oparin-Haldane) proposes that life arose when simple inorganic and organic molecules combined into more complex ones under the conditions of the early Earth, as Miller's experiment imitated. Solar radiation or heat were only energy sources within this idea, not the concept itself.
Q8AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q111
Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Before and during meiosis the microspore mother cell (and the tetrad it forms) lays down a temporary callose wall, which is later dissolved to release the microspores. A mature pollen grain is covered by sporopollenin exine and pectocellulosic intine, not callose.
Q9AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q112
Probiotics are
Not quite — the answer is C.
Probiotics are live beneficial microbes, such as Lactobacillus, taken as food supplements to improve the balance of gut microflora. They are living organisms, not antibiotics, which are chemicals that kill or inhibit microbes.
Q10AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q113
One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of
Not quite — the answer is D.
Podophyllum (Himalayan mayapple) is a medicinal herb that has become endangered through over-harvesting of its rhizomes for drugs. Ocimum (tulsi) and garlic are widely cultivated, and Nepenthes is an insectivorous plant rather than a medicinal one.
Q11AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q114
What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and silver fish?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Nereis (an annelid) has a contractile dorsal blood vessel, and arthropods such as scorpion, cockroach and silverfish have a dorsal tubular heart, so all have a dorsal heart. Nereis is a marine annelid with unjointed parapodia, so 'none is aquatic', 'same phylum' and 'jointed appendages' all fail.
Q12AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q115
The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for
Not quite — the answer is A.
NCERT points out that reproduction cannot be a defining property, since sterile organisms such as mules and worker bees do not reproduce, and growth is also seen in non-living things like crystals and mountains. Sensing and interacting with the environment (consciousness) together with the capacity to evolve is shown by every living organism, so it is the exceptionless distinction.
Q13AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q116
A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have
Not quite — the answer is C.
Urea is made in the liver from the amino groups of dietary and body proteins. With no protein intake, far less nitrogen enters the urea cycle, so urea in urine falls. Blood glucose drops during starvation rather than rising, and normal urine has almost no amino acids anyway.
Q14AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q117
The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Negatively charged DNA wraps around positively charged histone octamers to form nucleosomes, which coil further into chromatin fibres, packing about 2.2 m of DNA into a tiny nucleus. Cells do not digest DNA or delete genes or repetitive sequences to save space.
Q15AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q120
Select the wrong statement from the following.
Not quite — the answer is A.
Thylakoids are found only in chloroplasts; mitochondria have cristae and a matrix but no thylakoid space, so this statement is wrong. Both organelles are double-membraned, contain their own DNA, and chloroplasts are generally larger than mitochondria.
Q16AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q121
Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of
Not quite — the answer is A.
Age pyramids show the proportion of pre-reproductive, reproductive and post-reproductive individuals, and age distribution is an attribute of a population. A community or ecosystem contains many species, so a single age structure cannot describe it.
Q17AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q122
During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle-like structure. What is its DNA-binding sequence?
Not quite — the answer is C.
RNA polymerase is positioned at the promoter by the TATA box (Pribnow box in prokaryotes), an AT-rich consensus sequence TATAAT/TATAAAA about 10-30 bases upstream of the start site. AATT and TTAA are not the recognised promoter consensus.
Q18AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q124
In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times. As a result
Not quite — the answer is C.
When male and female gametes on the same prothallus mature at different times (dichogamy), the egg cannot be fertilised by antherozoids of the same prothallus, so self-fertilisation is prevented and cross-fertilisation is favoured. This does not cause sterility or apomixis.
Q19AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q125
Ergot of rye is caused by a species of
Not quite — the answer is C.
Ergot of rye is caused by the ascomycete Claviceps purpurea, which replaces grains with dark sclerotia. Ustilago causes smut, Uncinula causes powdery mildew and Phytophthora causes late blight.
Q20AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q126
The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of
Not quite — the answer is C.
Darwin's finches on the Galapagos show how one ancestral seed-eating stock spread over the islands and radiated into many forms with different beaks, which is evidence for evolution from geographical distribution (biogeography and adaptive radiation). They contradict special creation and do not show retrogressive evolution.
Q21AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q127
Which one of the following is a slime mould?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Physarum is a plasmodial slime mould, a saprophytic protist that forms a multinucleate plasmodium. Thiobacillus is a chemosynthetic bacterium, Anabaena a cyanobacterium and Rhizopus a true fungus.
Q22AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q128
The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
Not quite — the answer is B.
A population that grows explosively and then crashes suddenly, without levelling off at a carrying capacity, follows a J-shaped (exponential) growth curve. A sigmoid curve would slow down and plateau instead of disappearing.
Q23AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q131
For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs is suitable?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Teak (a dicot tree) and pine (a gymnosperm) both have an active vascular cambium and cork cambium, so they show clear secondary growth. Ferns, wheat and sugarcane lack cambial activity, so every other pair contains a plant without secondary growth.
Q24AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q134
In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Epithelial cells are tightly packed with little intercellular matrix, and they are held together by tight, adhering and gap junctions. Tendon and cartilage cells are scattered in abundant matrix, and platelets are free cell fragments, so junctions are rare there.
Q25AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q135
If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Algae are divided into Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae chiefly by their major pigments (chlorophyll a and b, fucoxanthin, r-phycoerythrin), which give the green, brown and red colours. Stored food and cell wall also differ, but the primary basis of grouping is pigments.
Q26AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q136
About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and
Not quite — the answer is C.
Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium and phosphorus together make up about 98-99% of body mass; calcium and phosphorus are abundant in bone and nucleic acids. Sulphur, sodium and magnesium are present only in much smaller amounts.
Q27AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q137
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Fertiliser run-off adds nitrates and phosphates to lakes and ponds, causing algal blooms and eutrophication. Azotobacter is free-living and does not form root nodules, and Anabaena and Nostoc fix nitrogen rather than mobilising phosphate (that is done by mycorrhizal fungi such as Glomus).
Q28AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q138
In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are
Not quite — the answer is C.
Bread wheat is hexaploid with 2n = 6x = 42. Its gametes carry n = 21 chromosomes, and the basic set is x = 42/6 = 7. Options that equate n and x ignore that n here contains three basic sets.
Q29AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q139
Passage cells are thin walled cells found in
Not quite — the answer is D.
In older roots most endodermal cells become thickened with suberin, but some opposite the protoxylem stay thin-walled; these passage cells let water pass from the cortex into the pericycle and xylem. They are not part of phloem, seed coat or style.
Q30AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q140
What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Birds and mammals are warm-blooded (homoiothermous), so the parrot, the platypus and the kangaroo all keep a constant body temperature. Kangaroos are viviparous and have teeth, so oviparity and toothless jaws do not fit all three.
Q31AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q142
Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Vinegar (acetic acid) is produced by Acetobacter aceti, not by coliforms; coliforms are gut bacteria used as indicators of faecal contamination. Yeast makes ethanol, Streptomyces makes antibiotics and methanogens produce biogas, so those pairs are correct.
Q32AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q143
Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation?
Not quite — the answer is D.
After ovulation the remains of the ruptured Graafian follicle become the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone, so it is the follicle that turns endocrine. The vitelline membrane surrounds the ovum and the germinal epithelium is a covering layer; neither secretes hormones.
Q33AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q145
Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Leech is an annelid, and non-chordates such as annelids have a ventral, solid nerve cord. Chamaeleon, being a chordate, does have pharyngeal gill slits in the embryo, scorpion has a dorsal heart, and octopus has no post-anal tail.
Q34AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q146
All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Succinate dehydrogenase is bound to the inner mitochondrial membrane, where it also forms complex II of the electron transport chain. Lactate dehydrogenase is not a Krebs cycle enzyme at all, and the other dehydrogenases are in the matrix.
Q35AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q147
The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Electrons from P680 pass to the primary acceptor of PSII and then to plastoquinone, so among the options a quinone is the first acceptor. Ferredoxin and iron-sulphur proteins accept electrons on the PSI side, and cytochromes come later in the chain.
Q36AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q148
Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with
Not quite — the answer is A.
All cells of an organism carry the same genes; they differentiate into different tissues because different sets of genes are switched on or off in each. Mutations and gene deletions are abnormal events, not the basis of normal development.
Q37AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q149
Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Mycoplasma have no cell wall, and penicillin acts by blocking cell wall synthesis, so mycoplasma are resistant to it. They are pleomorphic, cause plant and animal diseases, and are known as PPLO, so those statements are true.
Q38AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q150
Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Pila globosa is the apple snail and does not produce pearls; pearls come from the pearl oyster Pinctada. Apis gives honey, Kerria (Laccifer) lacca gives lac and Bombyx mori gives silk.
Q39AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q151
A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorus metabolism in his body. Which one of following glands may not be functioning properly?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Parathyroid hormone controls blood calcium and phosphate by acting on bone, kidney and intestine, so faulty calcium-phosphorus metabolism points to the parathyroid. Thyroid calcitonin also lowers calcium but is a minor regulator; parotid is a salivary gland.
Q40AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q153
In the leaves of C₄ plants, malic acid formation during CO₂ fixation occurs in the cells of
Not quite — the answer is D.
In C₄ plants PEP carboxylase in mesophyll cells fixes CO₂ into oxaloacetate, which is turned into malic acid there before moving to the bundle sheath. In the bundle sheath, malate is broken down to release CO₂ for the Calvin cycle, so malate is not formed there.
Q41AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q154
Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Riccia (bryophyte) and Dryopteris (pteridophyte) have flagellated antherozoids, and Cycas is the gymnosperm whose male gametes are motile and multiciliate. Each other set includes a plant with non-motile gametes, such as Spirogyra, Zygnema, Hydrilla or Calotropis.
Q42AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q156
One gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in
Not quite — the answer is D.
Beadle and Tatum studied nutritional mutants of the mould Neurospora crassa and showed each gene controls one enzyme. Diplococcus pneumoniae was used by Griffith for transformation, and E. coli for lac operon and replication studies.
Q43AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q157
Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show
Not quite — the answer is C.
Genes lying very close together are tightly linked and rarely separated by crossing over, so the F2 shows many more parental combinations than recombinants. The 9:3:3:1 ratio holds only for independently assorting genes.
Q44AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q160
Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they
Not quite — the answer is D.
By the biological species concept, members of a species interbreed freely in nature and produce fertile offspring (here, viable seeds). Similar appearance, chromosome number or gene similarity can be shared by different species, so they are not conclusive.
Q45AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q161
Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of
Not quite — the answer is B.
Human skin colour is controlled by several genes with additive effects, giving continuous variation; this is polygenic inheritance. Codominance involves two alleles of one gene both being expressed, as in ABO blood groups.
Q46AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q162
When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed
Not quite — the answer is C.
Unrelated lineages that evolve similar features because they adapt to similar habitats show convergent evolution, producing analogous structures. Divergent evolution is the opposite, where related forms become different.
Q47AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q163
Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to
Not quite — the answer is B.
Seasonal asthma is an allergic reaction: pollen released in particular flowering seasons acts as an allergen, triggering IgE-mediated release of histamine and bronchial constriction. Temperature alone does not explain the seasonal pattern.
Q48AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q164
Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in
Not quite — the answer is D.
Neanderthal man had a brain of about 1400 cc. Homo erectus had about 900 cc and Homo habilis about 650-800 cc, so they fall below 1000 cc, and Ramapithecus was an ape-like hominid.
Q49AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q165
Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that
Not quite — the answer is D.
Dark (melanic) moths existed before industrialisation because the melanic allele keeps arising by random mutation; soot-darkened trees only made them better camouflaged so natural selection increased their numbers. Pollution did not create melanism, and the dark form clearly had an advantage in industrial areas.
Q50AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q166
A high density of elephant population in an area can result in
Not quite — the answer is A.
When many individuals of the same species crowd an area they compete for the same food, water and space, which is intraspecific competition. Interspecific competition involves different species, and elephants do not prey on each other.
Q51AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q167
A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Serum is plasma from which fibrinogen and other clotting factors have been removed, so it cannot clot. Plasma, whole blood and lymph still contain fibrinogen and will coagulate.
Q52AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q168
Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Tropical rain forests have high temperature, abundant rainfall and year-round sunlight, giving the highest net primary productivity among terrestrial ecosystems. Deciduous and temperate forests have seasons that limit growth.
Q53AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q169
In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are not joined to the sternum and are called floating ribs, so there are 2 pairs. Humans have 1 pair of clavicles, 3 pairs of salivary glands and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
Q54AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q170
Telomere repetitive DNA sequences control the function of eukaryotic chromosomes because they
Not quite — the answer is C.
Telomeres are repetitive caps at chromosome ends that stop the ends from being degraded, fused or shortened at each replication, so they keep chromosomes stable and prevent their loss. Replication origins (replicons) and promoters are different sequences.
Q55AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q171
Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by
Not quite — the answer is D.
In liverworts such as Marchantia the capsule contains hygroscopic elaters that twist with changing humidity and scatter the spores. Peristome teeth do this job in mosses, and the indusium covers sori of ferns.
Q56AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q173
The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of
Not quite — the answer is D.
Respiration oxidises glucose in many small enzyme-controlled steps so that the released energy can be trapped as ATP gradually rather than lost as heat in one burst. These pathways break sugars down; they do not make sugars or nucleic acids.
Q57AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q174
Adaptive radiation refers to
Not quite — the answer is A.
Adaptive radiation is the evolution of many different species from one ancestral form as they spread into different habitats, as in Darwin's finches or Australian marsupials. Simple migration or an individual's adaptability is not speciation.
Q58AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q176
Select the correct statement from the following.
Not quite — the answer is A.
NCERT describes fitness as the end result of an organism's ability to adapt and be selected by nature. Mutations are random and directionless while Darwinian variations are small and directional, and whales and camels also have seven cervical vertebrae (sloths and manatees are the exceptions).
Q59AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q177
Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of
Not quite — the answer is A.
The generative cell of the pollen grain divides mitotically to form the two male gametes. The vegetative cell forms the pollen tube, and the microspore mother cell divides by meiosis to form microspores.
Q60AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q178
In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Yy x yy gives half Yy (yellow) and half yy (green), a 1:1 or 50:50 ratio. A 3:1 ratio would need both parents to be heterozygous.
Q61AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q179
Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Mature mammalian red blood cells lack mitochondria, so they cannot run the Krebs cycle and electron transport and depend on glycolysis to lactate. Liver, muscle and white blood cells have mitochondria and respire aerobically.
Q62AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q180
A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Four gamete types in equal proportions are produced only by a double heterozygote (AaBb) with independent assortment. AaBB or AABb would give only two gamete types, and AABB only one.
Q63AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q181
What is common to whale, seal and shark?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Whale and seal are mammals and the shark is a fish, yet all have streamlined bodies and flippers or fins for aquatic life; this similarity in unrelated groups is convergent evolution. Shark is cold-blooded and lacks blubber, so homoiothermy and subcutaneous fat do not apply to all three.
Q64AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q182
One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Geographically separated populations stop exchanging genes, accumulate different variations and eventually become reproductively isolated, forming new species (allopatric speciation). Isolation promotes rather than prevents speciation.
Q65AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q183
Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys
Not quite — the answer is A.
Lysozyme is an enzyme that breaks the peptidoglycan of bacterial cell walls, so it kills certain (mainly Gram-positive) bacteria as part of innate immunity. Viruses and fungi have no peptidoglycan, and virus-infected cells are killed by interferons and cytotoxic cells.
Q66AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q184
In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of
Not quite — the answer is B.
Menstruation follows the fall in progesterone and estrogen when the corpus luteum degenerates. Giving these two hormones keeps the endometrium intact and suppresses FSH/LH, which delays menstruation; this is also how combined oral pills work. FSH or LH would stimulate the ovary instead.
Q67AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q185
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The cell membrane is built of a phospholipid bilayer with cholesterol, proteins and carbohydrate-bearing glycolipids and glycoproteins. Proline is a free amino acid; it occurs only as part of membrane proteins and is not a membrane component by itself.
Q68AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q186
Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of
Not quite — the answer is B.
A bullock is a castrated bull; without testes it makes little testosterone, the hormone that drives aggressive male behaviour, so it is docile. Its adrenal and thyroid hormones are not the cause.
Q69AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q187
During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric change?
Not quite — the answer is D.
At rest the inside of the axon is negative (about -70 mV); during the action potential Na⁺ influx makes it positive, and K⁺ efflux during repolarisation returns it to negative. It does not stay positive after the impulse passes.
Q70AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q188
Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Lantana camara and water hyacinth (Eichhornia) were brought into India from the Americas and have become invasive alien weeds. Prosopis cineraria (khejri) and Ficus religiosa (peepal) are native Indian plants.
Q71AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q189
In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents
Not quite — the answer is A.
In gymnosperms such as Cycas the pollen chamber is a cavity formed at the micropylar end of the nucellus of the ovule, where pollen grains land and rest after pollination before germinating. The structure in which pollen grains develop is the microsporangium (pollen sac), which is a different organ.
Q72AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q190
Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by
Not quite — the answer is B.
Which genes a cell transcribes, and therefore what it becomes, is controlled by regulatory proteins (transcription factors) that bind promoters and enhancers to switch genes on or off. RNA polymerase carries out transcription in every cell but by itself does not decide which genes are expressed; ribosomes and anticodons act in translation.
Q73AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q192
The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are
Not quite — the answer is B.
In the double helix one strand runs 5'->3' and its partner 3'->5', so the chains are antiparallel. 'Semiconservative' describes how DNA replicates, not how its strands are arranged.
Q74AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q194
Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cells?
Not quite — the answer is D.
A neuron has a cell body (perikaryon/cyton) with Nissl granules and branched dendrites, features found only in nerve cells. Nucleus and mitochondria are present in almost all cells, so they cannot distinguish a neuron.
Q75AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q199
Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoried building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Fear triggers the sympathetic nervous system to release adrenaline from the adrenal medulla, the 'fight or flight' hormone that raises heart rate, breathing and blood glucose for quick action. Glucagon, gastrin and thyroxine do not mediate emergency responses.
Q76AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q200
"Foolish seedling" disease of rice led to the discovery of
Not quite — the answer is D.
Kurosawa found that rice seedlings infected by the fungus Gibberella fujikuroi grew abnormally tall (bakanae or foolish seedling disease) because of a substance later named gibberellin (GA). IAA was discovered from oat coleoptile experiments and ABA from studies of abscission and dormancy.
Biology: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 16 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
16 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q119
In a coal fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of
Not quite — the answer is B.
An electrostatic precipitator charges dust and ash particles and collects them on oppositely charged plates, removing over 99% of suspended particulate matter (SPM). It cannot remove gases such as NOₓ, CO or SO₂, which need scrubbers or catalytic converters.
Q2AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q123
A plant requires magnesium for
Not quite — the answer is B.
Magnesium is the central metal atom of the chlorophyll porphyrin ring, so it is essential for chlorophyll synthesis (it also activates enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis). Cell wall development and holding cells together (middle lamella) are roles of calcium.
Q3AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q129
Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing micro-organism?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Casuarina, a flowering plant, bears root nodules containing Frankia, a filamentous actinomycete that fixes nitrogen. Crotalaria and Cicer are legumes whose nodules contain the rod-shaped bacterium Rhizobium, and Cycas is a gymnosperm whose coralloid roots have cyanobacteria.
Q4AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q130
Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian countryside?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Seeds of Pongamia pinnata (karanja) contain about 30-40% non-edible oil that is used to make biodiesel in rural India. Sugarcane and beetroot are sources of sugar and ethanol rather than biodiesel.
Q5AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q132
Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Retinol is vitamin A, a fat-soluble vitamin whose deficiency causes xerophthalmia and night blindness. Calciferol (vitamin D) is fat-soluble but causes rickets, not pellagra; beri-beri is due to thiamine deficiency; and ascorbic acid is water-soluble.
Q6AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q133
Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be
Not quite — the answer is C.
Water moves towards the cell with the higher diffusion pressure deficit (suction pressure). Cell B has a DPD of 5 atm and cell A only 3 atm, so water flows from A to B. Comparing osmotic pressures alone would wrongly suggest movement towards A.
Q7AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q141
Bowman's glands are located in the
Not quite — the answer is C.
Bowman's glands (olfactory glands) lie in the olfactory epithelium and secrete mucus that dissolves odour molecules. The trap is Bowman's capsule, which is at the proximal end of the nephron, not a gland.
Q8AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q152
A genetically engineered micro-organism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of
Not quite — the answer is D.
Ananda Chakrabarty engineered a Pseudomonas putida strain (the 'superbug') carrying plasmids that let it break down many hydrocarbons, used to clean oil spills. Trichoderma is a biocontrol fungus and Bacillus thuringiensis is a biopesticide, not oil degraders.
Q9AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q155
If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, which of the following is most likely to occur?
Not quite — the answer is D.
In a normal (bell-shaped) distribution the curve is symmetrical, so the mean, median and mode coincide. In a skewed curve the mean is pulled away from the median towards the tail.
Q10AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q158
In cloning of cattle, a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother's womb and
Not quite — the answer is A.
In embryo-splitting cloning, the early embryo is taken out at about the eight-cell stage, its cells are separated and each is grown into a small embryo that is implanted into a surrogate cow. The cells are not separated by electric fields, and the embryo is not implanted as pairs of cells.
Q11AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q159
Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Diagnostic ultrasound uses roughly 1-15 MHz: lower frequencies penetrate deep organs and higher ones give finer detail near the surface. Much higher frequencies would be absorbed too quickly to image internal organs.
Q12AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q172
Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Calcium is an essential element but is needed in large amounts, so it is a macronutrient, not a micronutrient. Zinc, copper and manganese are needed only in traces and are micronutrients.
Q13AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q191
Which of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans?
Not quite — the answer is D.
When body temperature falls, the hypothalamus triggers skin vasoconstriction and shivering to bring it back up, a response that opposes the change: negative feedback. The 'too hot' option is wrong because heat causes vasodilation, not constriction, while tears and salivation are simple reflexes.
Q14AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q195
In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by
Not quite — the answer is A.
Hybrid maize is produced by crossing two different inbred (homozygous) lines; the F1 shows heterosis with higher yield and vigour. Simply selecting seeds from good plants or inducing mutations does not produce hybrid vigour.
Q15AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q196
Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Ranikhet (Newcastle) disease is caused by a paramyxovirus and is a major viral disease of poultry. Infectious coryza, pasteurellosis (fowl cholera) and salmonellosis are bacterial diseases.
Q16AIPMT 2007 Prelims · Q198
Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Blood-worms (Chironomus larvae), sludge-worms (Tubifex) and sewage fungus thrive in organically polluted, low-oxygen water and so indicate pollution. Stonefly nymphs need clean, well-oxygenated water and disappear when water is polluted, so they indicate clean water instead.
Chapter-wise split of AIPMT 2007 Prelims Biology
- Evolution9 Q
- Molecular Basis of Inheritance8 Q
- Plant Kingdom5 Q
- Principles of Inheritance and Variation5 Q
- The Living World4 Q
- Biological Classification4 Q
- Animal Kingdom4 Q
- Biodiversity and Conservation3 Q
- Microbes in Human Welfare3 Q
- Organisms and Populations3 Q
- Respiration in Plants3 Q
- Chemical Coordination and Integration3 Q
- Body Fluids and Circulation2 Q
- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants2 Q
- Cell: The Unit of Life2 Q
- Anatomy of Flowering Plants2 Q
- Photosynthesis in Higher Plants2 Q
- Human Health and Disease2 Q
- Neural Control and Coordination2 Q
- Excretory Products and Their Elimination1 Q
- Structural Organisation in Animals1 Q
- Biomolecules1 Q
- Human Reproduction1 Q
- Ecosystem1 Q
- Locomotion and Movement1 Q
- Reproductive Health1 Q
- Plant Growth and Development1 Q
About this paper
How many questions from AIPMT 2007 Prelims are on this page?
178 questions (Physics 37, Chemistry 49, Biology 92). Questions that need a diagram we could not reproduce, or whose wording in the source was unclear, are left out.
Are these the original questions?
Yes. The questions and options are as set in the AIPMT 2007 Prelims paper, conducted by CBSE. The answer to every question was checked by the RankUp team, and the explanations are RankUp's own.
Is AIPMT 2007 Prelims useful for NEET 2027?
Yes. The NEET syllabus is built on the same NCERT books. 27 questions here are on topics NCERT has since dropped; they are listed separately so you can skip them.
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