NEET 2020 Question PaperPhysics, Chemistry and Biology, with checked answers and solutions
By the RankUp team, founded by Dr. Deepak Sahu (MBBS Gold Medalist, NEET PG AIR 1731) · Updated
168 questions from the NEET 2020 paper, conducted by NTA. Tap an option to check your answer and read why it is right. Each subject has a free PDF with the answer key and explanations.
- Exam
- NEET 2020
- Conducted by
- NTA
- Physics
- 42 questions
- Chemistry
- 43 questions
- Biology
- 83 questions
NEET 2020 Physics questions
41 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2020 · Q136
For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Bohr's model applies only to one-electron (hydrogen-like) systems. Hydrogen, deuterium and He⁺ each have a single electron, but Ne⁺ still has 9 electrons, so electron–electron interactions make the model invalid.
Q2NEET 2020 · Q137
The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : (c = speed of electromagnetic waves)
Not quite — the answer is B.
The electric energy density ½ε₀E² equals the magnetic energy density B²/2μ₀ because E = cB and c² = 1/μ₀ε₀, so both fields contribute equally to intensity. The ratio E/B = c is about field amplitudes, not about energy.
Q3NEET 2020 · Q138
The Brewsters angle i_b for an interface should be :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Brewster's law gives tan i_b = μ. For light going from a rarer to a denser medium μ > 1, so tan i_b > 1 and i_b lies between 45° and 90°. i_b = 90° would need an infinite refractive index.
Q4NEET 2020 · Q139
A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C. Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is B.
ρ = PM/RT = (249×10³ × 2×10⁻³)/(8.3 × 300) = 498/2490 = 0.2 kg/m³. Using M = 1 g/mol (atomic H) instead of 2 g/mol for H₂ would give the 0.1 kg/m³ trap.
Q5NEET 2020 · Q140
A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is μ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Emerging normally means r₂ = 0, so r₁ = A − r₂ = A. For small angles Snell's law sin i = μ sin r₁ becomes i ≈ μA. Dividing by μ instead of multiplying confuses the direction of refraction.
Q6NEET 2020 · Q142
The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
E = mc² = 0.5×10⁻³ kg × (3×10⁸ m/s)² = 0.5×10⁻³ × 9×10¹⁶ = 4.5×10¹³ J. Forgetting to convert grams to kilograms gives the 4.5×10¹⁶ J trap.
Q7NEET 2020 · Q143
A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Gravitational force varies as 1/r², so at r = R + R/2 = 1.5R the force is 72 × (1/1.5)² = 72 × 4/9 = 32 N. The approximation g(1 − 2h/R) is only valid for h ≪ R and would wrongly give zero here.
Q8NEET 2020 · Q144
The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are :
Not quite — the answer is D.
In semiconductors and insulators, heating frees more charge carriers across the band gap, so resistance falls with temperature (negative coefficient). In metals the carrier number is fixed and increased lattice scattering raises resistance, giving a positive coefficient.
Q9NEET 2020 · Q145
The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In SHM a = −ω²x, so acceleration is always opposite to displacement, a phase difference of π rad. The π/2 difference is between displacement and velocity.
Q10NEET 2020 · Q146
A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The pitch of the screw gauge is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Least count = pitch / number of circular scale divisions, so pitch = 0.01 mm × 50 = 0.5 mm. The least count itself is not the pitch.
Q11NEET 2020 · Q147
In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be :
Not quite — the answer is B.
With 6 Hz beats, B is 524 Hz or 536 Hz. Lowering tension lowers B's frequency (f ∝ √T); the beat frequency rises only if B moves further from 530 Hz, so B must start below A at 524 Hz. Had B been 536 Hz, lowering it would bring it closer to 530 Hz and reduce the beats.
Q12NEET 2020 · Q148
Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass. The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Taking the 5 kg particle at the origin, x_cm = (5×0 + 10×1)/15 = 0.667 m ≈ 67 cm. 33 cm is the distance from the heavier particle, since the centre of mass lies closer to the larger mass.
Q13NEET 2020 · Q149
Find the torque about the origin when a force of 3ĵ N acts on a particle whose position vector is 2k̂ m.
Not quite — the answer is C.
τ = r × F = 2k̂ × 3ĵ = 6(k̂ × ĵ) = −6î N m, because k̂ × ĵ = −î. Reversing the order (F × r) gives the sign error +6î N m.
Q14NEET 2020 · Q150
Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm² falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area 20 cm². The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Power received = 20 W/cm² × 20 cm² = 400 W, and in 60 s the energy is 400 × 60 = 24×10³ J. Doubling for reflection is not needed because the surface is non-reflecting; that only affects momentum transfer anyway.
Q15NEET 2020 · Q151
A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of 3.2×10⁻⁷ C distributed uniformly. What is the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere ? (1/4πε₀ = 9×10⁹ N m²/C²)
Not quite — the answer is B.
Outside the sphere it acts like a point charge: E = kq/r² = 9×10⁹ × 3.2×10⁻⁷ / (0.15)² = 2880/0.0225 = 1.28×10⁵ N/C. Using 10 cm (the radius) instead of 15 cm, or forgetting to convert cm to m, gives the other powers of ten.
Q16NEET 2020 · Q152
In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m³, the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. The magnitude of electric field in this region is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
E = −dV/dr, and a potential that is the same everywhere in the region has zero gradient, so the field is zero. Dividing the potential by the volume or any length has no physical meaning here.
Q17NEET 2020 · Q153
The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to :
Not quite — the answer is B.
A reverse bias adds to the barrier potential and pulls majority carriers away from the junction, so the depletion region widens. Forward bias opposes the barrier and narrows the depletion layer, which is also why forward current rises.
Q18NEET 2020 · Q154
A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly :
Not quite — the answer is C.
X_C = 1/(2πfC) = 1/(2π × 50 × 40×10⁻⁶) ≈ 79.6 Ω, so I_rms = V_rms/X_C = 200/79.6 ≈ 2.5 A. Taking 200 V as a peak value and dividing by √2 gives about 1.8 A, which is not what the rms supply rating means.
Q19NEET 2020 · Q155
The mean free path for a gas, with molecular diameter d and number density n can be expressed as :
Not quite — the answer is B.
A molecule sweeps a collision cross-section πd², and allowing for the relative motion of molecules the mean free path is λ = 1/(√2 nπd²). The number density appears only to the first power, and the cross-section must be an area (d²) for λ to have units of length.
Q20NEET 2020 · Q157
Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Halving 1.5ν₀ gives 0.75ν₀, which is below the threshold frequency, so no photoelectrons are emitted whatever the intensity and the current is zero. Intensity controls the current only when ν exceeds ν₀.
Q21NEET 2020 · Q158
When a uranium isotope ²³⁵₉₂U is bombarded with a neutron, it generates ⁸⁹₃₆Kr, three neutrons and :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Conserving mass number: 235 + 1 = 89 + 3 + A, so A = 144; conserving charge: 92 = 36 + Z, so Z = 56, which is barium-144. The krypton options keep Z = 36 and so violate charge conservation.
Q22NEET 2020 · Q159
The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 10⁻²⁰ J. This value in eV is nearly :
Not quite — the answer is C.
1 eV = 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ J, so 10⁻²⁰ J = 10⁻²⁰/1.6×10⁻¹⁹ ≈ 0.0625 eV ≈ 0.06 eV. Multiplying instead of dividing by the conversion factor gives meaningless magnitudes.
Q23NEET 2020 · Q160
Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
For two masses hanging over a frictionless pulley, a = (m₂ − m₁)g/(m₁ + m₂) = (6 − 4)g/10 = g/5. Using only the heavier mass in the denominator, or forgetting the difference of weights, gives the other values.
Q24NEET 2020 · Q161
A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to L₁ when mass M is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Y = stress/strain = (Mg/A)/((L₁ − L)/L) = MgL/(A(L₁ − L)). The strain uses the extension L₁ − L, not the new length L₁, and the extension goes in the denominator.
Q25NEET 2020 · Q162
The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is : (k_B is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute temperature)
Not quite — the answer is B.
A monatomic molecule has 3 translational degrees of freedom, each carrying ½k_BT by equipartition, so the average energy is (3/2)k_BT. (5/2)k_BT applies to a diatomic molecule with two rotational degrees added.
Q26NEET 2020 · Q164
The color code of a resistance is given below : bands Yellow, Violet, Brown, Gold. The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Yellow = 4 and violet = 7 give the digits 47, brown is the multiplier 10¹, so R = 470 Ω; a gold band means ±5% tolerance. The kΩ values use the wrong multiplier, and 10% tolerance would need a silver band.
Q27NEET 2020 · Q165
In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Fringe width β = λD/d. Doubling D and halving d multiplies β by 2 × 2 = 4. The two changes reinforce each other rather than cancelling.
Q28NEET 2020 · Q166
The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF. The permittivity of the medium is : (ε₀ = 8.85×10⁻¹² C² N⁻¹ m⁻²)
Not quite — the answer is C.
The dielectric constant is K = 30/6 = 5, so ε = Kε₀ = 5 × 8.85×10⁻¹² = 4.425×10⁻¹¹ ≈ 0.44×10⁻¹⁰ C² N⁻¹ m⁻². The value 5.00 is the dimensionless K, not the permittivity, and dividing ε₀ by 5 gives 1.77×10⁻¹².
Q29NEET 2020 · Q167
Dimensions of stress are :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Stress is force per area: [MLT⁻²]/[L²] = [ML⁻¹T⁻²], the same as pressure. [MLT⁻²] is force itself and [ML²T⁻²] is energy.
Q30NEET 2020 · Q168
Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
The angular limit of resolution is Δθ = 1.22λ/D = 1.22 × 600×10⁻⁹ / 2 = 3.66×10⁻⁷ rad. Leaving out the factor 1.22 gives 3.0×10⁻⁷, and using the radius instead of the diameter doubles the answer to 7.32×10⁻⁷.
Q31NEET 2020 · Q169
A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is π/3. If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π/3 between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
With L removed, tan(π/3) = X_C/R; with C removed, tan(π/3) = X_L/R. So X_L = X_C, the full LCR circuit is at resonance, Z = R and the power factor cos φ = R/Z = 1. 0.5 is cos(π/3), the power factor of the reduced circuits, not of the full one.
Q32NEET 2020 · Q170
A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 16×10⁻⁹ C m. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an angle of 60° with the dipole axis is : (1/4πε₀ = 9×10⁹ N m²/C²)
Not quite — the answer is B.
V = kp cos θ / r² = 9×10⁹ × 16×10⁻⁹ × cos 60° / (0.6)² = 144 × 0.5 / 0.36 = 200 V. Leaving out cos 60° gives 400 V, and zero applies only on the equatorial line (θ = 90°).
Q33NEET 2020 · Q171
An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetising field of 1200 A m⁻¹. The permeability of the material of the rod is : (µ₀ = 4π×10⁻⁷ T m A⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is A.
µ = µ₀(1 + χ) = 4π×10⁻⁷ × 600 = 2400π×10⁻⁷ = 2.4π×10⁻⁴ T m A⁻¹. The magnetising field of 1200 A m⁻¹ is not needed for permeability.
Q34NEET 2020 · Q172
A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is : (µ₀ = 4π×10⁻⁷ T m A⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is A.
Turns per metre n = 100/0.5 = 200, so B = µ₀nI = 4π×10⁻⁷ × 200 × 2.5 = 2π×10⁻⁴ ≈ 6.28×10⁻⁴ T. Using the total turns per 1 m (100) instead of per 0.5 m halves the answer to 3.14×10⁻⁴ T.
Q35NEET 2020 · Q173
A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5×10⁻⁴ m s⁻¹ in an electric field of 3×10⁻¹⁰ V m⁻¹, has a mobility in m² V⁻¹ s⁻¹ of :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Mobility µ = v_d/E = 7.5×10⁻⁴ / 3×10⁻¹⁰ = 2.5×10⁶ m² V⁻¹ s⁻¹. The 2.25 values come from multiplying the two quantities, which is dimensionally wrong.
Q36NEET 2020 · Q174
The quantities of heat required to raise the temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii r₁ and r₂ (r₁ = 1.5 r₂) through 1 K are in the ratio :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Q = mcΔT with the same c and ΔT, and m ∝ volume ∝ r³, so Q₁/Q₂ = (1.5)³ = 27/8. Using surface area (r²) instead of volume would give 9/4.
Q37NEET 2020 · Q175
An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10⁻² nm, the potential difference is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
For an electron λ = 1.227/√V nm, so √V = 1.227/(1.227×10⁻²) = 100 and V = 10⁴ V. Forgetting to square √V gives 10² V.
Q38NEET 2020 · Q176
Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of 9.99 m − 0.0099 m ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
9.99 − 0.0099 = 9.9801 m, but in subtraction the result keeps as many decimal places as the least precise term; 9.99 has two decimal places, so the answer is 9.98 m. 9.9801 m reports more precision than the data justify.
Q39NEET 2020 · Q177
A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s²)
Not quite — the answer is D.
v² = u² + 2gh gives 80² = 20² + 2 × 10 × h, so 6400 − 400 = 20h and h = 300 m. Ignoring the initial downward speed would give 320 m.
Q40NEET 2020 · Q178
A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Jurin's law gives h ∝ 1/r, and the mass of the raised column m = ρπr²h ∝ r²/r = r. Doubling the radius doubles the mass, from 5 g to 10 g. Assuming the height stays the same would give 20 g.
Q41NEET 2020 · Q179
A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the resistance wire is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
At balance R/10 = 3/2, so R = 15 Ω. The wire is 1.5 m long, so 1 Ω corresponds to 1.5/15 = 0.1 m = 1.0×10⁻¹ m. Taking R as 10 Ω (forgetting the balance ratio) gives 1.5×10⁻¹ m.
Physics: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 1 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
1 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2020 · Q156
For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
For transistor action most carriers injected from the heavily doped emitter must cross the base without recombining, so the base is made very thin and lightly doped. The emitter-base junction is forward biased but the collector-base junction is reverse biased, and the three regions differ in doping and size.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2020 Physics
- Current Electricity4 Q
- Wave Optics3 Q
- Kinetic Theory3 Q
- Units and Measurements3 Q
- Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance3 Q
- Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter3 Q
- Electromagnetic Waves2 Q
- Nuclei2 Q
- System of Particles and Rotational Motion2 Q
- Alternating Current2 Q
- Atoms1 Q
- Ray Optics and Optical Instruments1 Q
- Gravitation1 Q
- Oscillations1 Q
- Waves1 Q
- Electric Charges and Fields1 Q
- Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits1 Q
- Laws of Motion1 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Solids1 Q
- Magnetism and Matter1 Q
- Moving Charges and Magnetism1 Q
- Thermal Properties of Matter1 Q
- Motion in a Straight Line1 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Fluids1 Q
NEET 2020 Chemistry questions
35 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2020 · Q91
Identify a molecule which does not exist.
Not quite — the answer is A.
He₂ would have the configuration σ1s² σ*1s², so its bond order is (2 − 2)/2 = 0 and no stable molecule forms. Li₂, C₂ and O₂ all have positive bond orders (1, 2 and 2), so they exist.
Q2NEET 2020 · Q92
Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)₂ in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)₂ is 2×10⁻¹⁵.
Not quite — the answer is A.
In 0.1 M NaOH, [OH⁻] ≈ 0.1 M from the common ion, so s × (0.1)² = 2×10⁻¹⁵, giving s = 2×10⁻¹⁵/10⁻² = 2×10⁻¹³ M. Forgetting to square [OH⁻] gives 2×10⁻¹⁴, and ignoring the common ion leads to the much larger 10⁻⁵–10⁻⁸ range.
Q3NEET 2020 · Q94
Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction. Sucrose + H₂O ⇌ Glucose + Fructose. If the equilibrium constant (K꜀) is 2×10¹³ at 300 K, the value of ΔrG° at the same temperature will be :
Not quite — the answer is A.
ΔrG° = −RT ln K, so with K = 2×10¹³ at 300 K, ΔrG° = −8.314 × 300 × ln(2×10¹³) J mol⁻¹, a large negative value as expected for K ≫ 1. The same expression without the minus sign would make a reaction with a huge K non-spontaneous, which is wrong.
Q4NEET 2020 · Q95
Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions : Toluene (C₆H₅CH₃) —Cl₂/hν→ X —H₂O, 373 K→ Benzaldehyde (C₆H₅CHO)
Not quite — the answer is C.
Side-chain chlorination of toluene in light gives benzal chloride, C₆H₅CHCl₂; hydrolysis at 373 K gives the gem-diol C₆H₅CH(OH)₂, which loses water to form benzaldehyde. Benzyl chloride would hydrolyse to benzyl alcohol and benzotrichloride to benzoic acid.
Q5NEET 2020 · Q96
Identify the incorrect match. Name — IUPAC Official Name: (a) Unnilunium — (i) Mendelevium; (b) Unniltrium — (ii) Lawrencium; (c) Unnilhexium — (iii) Seaborgium; (d) Unununnium — (iv) Darmstadtium
Not quite — the answer is D.
Unununnium is element 111, which is roentgenium; darmstadtium is element 110 (ununnilium). Unnilunium (101) is mendelevium, unniltrium (103) is lawrencium and unnilhexium (106) is seaborgium, so those pairs are correct.
Q6NEET 2020 · Q98
Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
BF₃ (trigonal planar), BeF₂ and CO₂ (linear) and 1,4-dichlorobenzene (para-substituted) are symmetric, so their bond dipoles cancel. Ammonia, water, NF₃, HF and 1,3-dichlorobenzene all have a net dipole, so every other set contains at least one polar molecule.
Q7NEET 2020 · Q99
On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be :
Not quite — the answer is B.
In dilute H₂SO₄, oxidation of water (2H₂O → O₂ + 4H⁺ + 4e⁻) is easier than oxidation of sulphate, so O₂ is liberated at the inert Pt anode. Hydrogen is formed at the cathode, not the anode.
Q8NEET 2020 · Q100
Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :
Not quite — the answer is C.
CH₃MgCl adds to the carbonyl carbon of (CH₃)₂C=O, and hydrolysis of the alkoxide gives (CH₃)₃C–OH, tert-butyl alcohol. A ketone with a Grignard reagent always gives a tertiary alcohol; isopropyl alcohol would come from reduction of acetone instead.
Q9NEET 2020 · Q101
Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has −O−O− linkage ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Peroxodisulphuric acid (Marshall's acid), HO₃S–O–O–SO₃H, contains a peroxide bridge between the two sulphur atoms. Pyrosulphuric acid also has two S atoms but they are joined by a single S–O–S oxygen, not a peroxo link.
Q10NEET 2020 · Q102
Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The carbylamine (isocyanide) test, heating with CHCl₃ and alcoholic KOH, is given only by primary amines, so aniline gives foul-smelling phenyl isocyanide. N-methylaniline and N-ethylaniline are secondary and N,N-dimethylaniline is tertiary, so none of them respond.
Q11NEET 2020 · Q103
The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr²⁺ ion is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Cr²⁺ is 3d⁴ with 4 unpaired electrons, so μ = √(n(n+2)) = √24 ≈ 4.90 BM. The value 3.87 BM corresponds to 3 unpaired electrons (Cr³⁺) and 5.92 BM to 5 unpaired electrons.
Q12NEET 2020 · Q104
The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In free expansion the gas expands into vacuum, so no work is done (w = 0), and the adiabatic condition gives q = 0. Then ΔU = 0, and since the internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on temperature, ΔT = 0. A temperature drop would need work done by the gas against an external pressure, which is absent here.
Q13NEET 2020 · Q105
The freezing point depression constant (K_f) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol⁻¹. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places) :
Not quite — the answer is C.
ΔT_f = K_f × m = 5.12 × 0.078 = 0.399 K, which rounds to 0.40 K. Since the solute is a non-electrolyte, i = 1 and no factor for dissociation is needed.
Q14NEET 2020 · Q106
The number of Faradays (F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl₂ (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol⁻¹) is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Ca²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Ca, so each mole of Ca needs 2 F. 20 g is 20/40 = 0.5 mol, which needs 0.5 × 2 = 1 F. Using 2 F straight from the equation ignores that only half a mole is produced.
Q15NEET 2020 · Q107
Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Acetophenone has α-hydrogens and forms an enolate that attacks benzaldehyde, which has none; condensation between two different carbonyl compounds is a cross aldol (Claisen–Schmidt) condensation, giving benzalacetophenone. Cannizzaro reaction needs concentrated alkali and an aldehyde without α-hydrogen reacting with itself or another such aldehyde.
Q16NEET 2020 · Q108
Paper chromatography is an example of :
Not quite — the answer is B.
In paper chromatography water held in the cellulose fibres is the stationary phase, and components separate by partition between it and the moving solvent, so it is partition chromatography. Thin layer and column chromatography are adsorption methods using a solid adsorbent.
Q17NEET 2020 · Q109
An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in :
Not quite — the answer is D.
More reactant molecules per unit volume means more collisions per second, so the collision frequency rises and the rate increases. Activation energy, threshold energy and heat of reaction are properties of the reaction itself and do not depend on concentration.
Q18NEET 2020 · Q112
A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The tert-butyl cation has nine α C–H bonds that can donate electron density into the empty p orbital, against fewer in the sec-butyl cation, so it gets more hyperconjugative stabilisation. Methyl groups are +I (electron-releasing), not −I, and they have no resonance effect here.
Q19NEET 2020 · Q114
Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is : (a) β-Elimination reaction (b) Follows Zaitsev rule (c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction (d) Dehydration reaction
Not quite — the answer is A.
HBr is removed from the α-carbon and a β-hydrogen, so it is a β-elimination and a dehydrohalogenation, and the more substituted pent-2-ene is the major product as Zaitsev's rule predicts. No water is lost, so calling it dehydration is wrong.
Q20NEET 2020 · Q115
The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Acetone breaks some of the hydrogen bonds between ethanol molecules, so A–B interactions are weaker than A–A and the vapour pressure is higher than Raoult's law predicts. Acetone + chloroform form a new H-bond and show negative deviation, while benzene + toluene and chloroethane + bromoethane are nearly ideal.
Q21NEET 2020 · Q116
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
In the spectrochemical series SCN⁻ < F⁻ < C₂O₄²⁻ < CN⁻, with cyanide one of the strongest-field ligands. Placing oxalate above cyanide, or fluoride below thiocyanate, contradicts that series.
Q22NEET 2020 · Q117
Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Lysine has an extra –NH₂ group on its side chain, so it has more amino groups than carboxyl groups and is basic. Serine, alanine and tyrosine have neutral side chains.
Q23NEET 2020 · Q120
Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Carboxyhaemoglobin is about 300 times more stable than oxyhaemoglobin, which is exactly why CO is poisonous: it blocks haemoglobin from carrying oxygen. CO does form carboxyhaemoglobin, reduces oxygen transport and is produced by incomplete combustion, so those statements are true.
Q24NEET 2020 · Q121
Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Sucrose is formed by a glycosidic link between C1 of α-D-glucose and C2 of β-D-fructose, so hydrolysis releases α-D-glucose and β-D-fructose. Swapping the anomers (β-glucose, α-fructose) is the usual trap.
Q25NEET 2020 · Q123
Which one of the followings has maximum number of atoms ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Moles of atoms: Ag 1/108, Mg 1/24, O₂ gives 2 × 1/32 = 1/16, and Li 1/7. The largest is 1/7 mol, so 1 g of lithium has the most atoms. For O₂ one must count two atoms per molecule, but even then it is less than lithium.
Q26NEET 2020 · Q124
The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in ¹⁷⁵₇₁Lu, respectively, are :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Atomic number 71 gives 71 protons and, for the neutral atom, 71 electrons; neutrons = 175 − 71 = 104. Using the mass number 175 as the proton count is the common slip.
Q27NEET 2020 · Q125
What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction ? CH₄(g) + 4Cl₂(g) → CCl₄(l) + 4HCl(g)
Not quite — the answer is C.
In CH₄, carbon is bonded to four less electronegative H atoms, so x + 4(+1) = 0 gives −4; in CCl₄, x + 4(−1) = 0 gives +4. Carbon is oxidised from −4 to +4.
Q28NEET 2020 · Q126
Identify the incorrect statement.
Not quite — the answer is D.
In CrO₄²⁻, x − 8 = −2 gives +6, and in Cr₂O₇²⁻, 2x − 14 = −2 gives +6, so chromium has the same oxidation state in both; the statement saying they differ is incorrect. Cr²⁺ does reduce more strongly than Fe²⁺ (Cr²⁺ → Cr³⁺ reaches stable t₂g³), and the statements on catalysis and interstitial compounds are true.
Q29NEET 2020 · Q127
For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl₂(g), the correct option is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Forming a Cl–Cl bond releases energy, so ΔrH < 0, and two gaseous particles become one, so disorder falls and ΔrS < 0. A positive enthalpy change would correspond to bond breaking, the reverse process.
Q30NEET 2020 · Q129
Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu²⁺ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Urea hydrolyses to ammonium carbamate, compound A, which decomposes to ammonia, compound B. NH₃ with Cu²⁺(aq) forms the deep blue tetraamminecopper(II) ion, [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺. Cu(OH)₂ is a pale blue precipitate that forms first but dissolves in excess ammonia.
Q31NEET 2020 · Q131
Match the following : Oxide — Nature: (a) CO — (i) Basic; (b) BaO — (ii) Neutral; (c) Al₂O₃ — (iii) Acidic; (d) Cl₂O₇ — (iv) Amphoteric. Which of the following is correct option ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
CO is a neutral oxide, BaO (from an alkaline earth metal) is basic, Al₂O₃ reacts with both acids and bases so it is amphoteric, and Cl₂O₇ is the anhydride of HClO₄ and strongly acidic. This follows the trend from basic metal oxides to acidic non-metal oxides.
Q32NEET 2020 · Q132
The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606×10⁻³ s⁻¹. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
t = (2.303/k) log([R]₀/[R]) = (2.303/4.606×10⁻³) × log(2.0/0.2) = 500 × 1 = 500 s. Leaving out the 2.303 conversion factor would give about 217 s, near the 200 s trap.
Q33NEET 2020 · Q133
An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the product. Its structure is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Methanal (HCHO) forms only from a terminal =CH₂ group. Allylcyclohexane, C₆H₁₁–CH₂–CH=CH₂, has a terminal double bond and gives HCHO plus cyclohexylethanal. The prop-1-enyl compound gives ethanal, and the ring alkenes open to dialdehydes with no methanal.
Q34NEET 2020 · Q134
Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Wurtz coupling works well for symmetrical alkanes made from one alkyl halide: n-butane (2 ethyl), n-hexane (2 n-propyl) and 2,3-dimethylbutane (2 isopropyl). n-Heptane has an odd number of carbons and needs two different halides (C₃ + C₄), which gives a mixture of hexane, heptane and octane, so the yield is poor.
Q35NEET 2020 · Q135
Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :
Not quite — the answer is A.
HI protonates the ether oxygen and I⁻ attacks the methyl carbon by SN2, because the O–aryl bond has partial double-bond character and cannot be cleaved; so anisole gives phenol and methyl iodide. Iodobenzene is not formed, and anisole has a methyl group, not an ethyl group.
Chemistry: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 8 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
8 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2020 · Q97
An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In bcc the atoms touch along the body diagonal, so √3 a = 4r and r = (√3/4)a = (√3/4) × 288 pm ≈ 124.7 pm. The factor √2/4 applies to fcc, where atoms touch along the face diagonal.
Q2NEET 2020 · Q110
A mixture of N₂ and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7 g of N₂ and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N₂ is : [Use atomic masses (in g mol⁻¹) : N = 14, Ar = 40]
Not quite — the answer is C.
Moles of N₂ = 7/28 = 0.25 and moles of Ar = 8/40 = 0.20, so the mole fraction of N₂ is 0.25/0.45 = 5/9. By Dalton's law p(N₂) = (5/9) × 27 = 15 bar. Using the mass ratio (7/15) instead of the mole ratio gives about 12.6 bar, which is wrong.
Q3NEET 2020 · Q113
Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
In cetyltrimethylammonium bromide the long hydrocarbon chain carries the positive quaternary ammonium head, so it is a cationic detergent. Sodium lauryl sulphate and sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate are anionic detergents and sodium stearate is a soap.
Q4NEET 2020 · Q118
HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl₂, MgCl₂ and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s) crystallise(s) ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Passing HCl gas raises [Cl⁻], and by the common-ion effect the ionic product of the least soluble salt, NaCl, exceeds its solubility product, so pure NaCl crystallises. CaCl₂ and MgCl₂ are far more soluble (and deliquescent) and stay in solution.
Q5NEET 2020 · Q119
Which of the following is a natural polymer ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Natural rubber is cis-1,4-polyisoprene. Buna-S (butadiene–styrene), polybutadiene and Buna-N (butadiene–acrylonitrile) are synthetic rubbers.
Q6NEET 2020 · Q122
The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.
Not quite — the answer is D.
K⁺ activates many enzymes, takes part in glucose oxidation to produce ATP and, together with Na⁺, maintains the gradients that carry nerve impulses. Calcium is involved in muscle contraction and bones, but the Na⁺/K⁺ pairing points to potassium.
Q7NEET 2020 · Q128
Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Zeta (electrokinetic) potential measures the potential difference across the diffuse double layer around colloidal particles; a high value means strong mutual repulsion, so it indicates the stability of the colloid. It does not give particle size or viscosity directly.
Q8NEET 2020 · Q130
Match the following and identify the correct option. (a) CO(g) + H₂(g) — (i) Mg(HCO₃)₂ + Ca(HCO₃)₂; (b) Temporary hardness of water — (ii) An electron deficient hydride; (c) B₂H₆ — (iii) Synthesis gas; (d) H₂O₂ — (iv) Non-planar structure
Not quite — the answer is A.
A mixture of CO and H₂ is synthesis (water) gas, temporary hardness is due to the bicarbonates of Mg and Ca, B₂H₆ is an electron-deficient hydride, and H₂O₂ has an open-book, non-planar structure. Only one matching puts all four together.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2020 Chemistry
- Thermodynamics3 Q
- Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure2 Q
- Haloalkanes and Haloarenes2 Q
- Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties2 Q
- Electrochemistry2 Q
- Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers2 Q
- The d- and f-Block Elements2 Q
- Solutions2 Q
- Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques2 Q
- Chemical Kinetics2 Q
- Biomolecules2 Q
- Hydrocarbons2 Q
- Equilibrium1 Q
- Amines1 Q
- Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids1 Q
- Coordination Compounds1 Q
- Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry1 Q
- Structure of Atom1 Q
- Redox Reactions1 Q
NEET 2020 Biology questions
72 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2020 · Q1
Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Sex ratio, natality and mortality are attributes of a population as a group, not of single individuals. Species interaction (predation, competition, mutualism) describes how different species affect each other, so it is a feature of the community, not an attribute of one population.
Q2NEET 2020 · Q2
The process of growth is maximum during:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In the sigmoid growth curve the log (exponential) phase shows the fastest growth because all the cells keep dividing. Growth is slow in the lag phase, slows and stops at senescence, and is suspended during dormancy.
Q3NEET 2020 · Q3
The roots that originate from the base of the stem are:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In monocots the primary root is short-lived and is replaced by many roots that arise from the base of the stem, forming the fibrous root system. Prop roots are adventitious roots that hang down from the branches (as in banyan), not from the stem base.
Q4NEET 2020 · Q4
Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) Typhoid | (i) Wuchereria (b) Pneumonia | (ii) Plasmodium (c) Filariasis | (iii) Salmonella (d) Malaria | (iv) Haemophilus
Not quite — the answer is B.
Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi, pneumonia by Haemophilus influenzae (and Streptococcus pneumoniae), filariasis by Wuchereria and malaria by Plasmodium. Only the option pairing these as Salmonella, Haemophilus, Wuchereria, Plasmodium is correct.
Q5NEET 2020 · Q5
In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
Not quite — the answer is A.
In ZIFT the zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) is put into the fallopian tube, and in IUT an embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is put into the uterus, so both transfer embryos. GIFT transfers an ovum (gamete), and ICSI injects a sperm into the ovum in the laboratory, so they are not embryo transfers.
Q6NEET 2020 · Q6
Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'I' that controls ABO blood groups.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Iᴬ and Iᴮ are codominant: each adds a different sugar to the plasma membrane, so a person with both shows both A and B antigens (blood group AB). The other statements are correct: gene I has three alleles, a diploid person carries any two of them, and allele i adds no sugar.
Q7NEET 2020 · Q7
Choose the correct pair from the following:
Not quite — the answer is A.
DNA ligase joins DNA fragments, for example sealing a gene into a vector. Polymerases synthesise DNA rather than break it, nucleases break phosphodiester bonds rather than separate strands, and it is endonucleases, not exonucleases, that cut at specific positions within the DNA.
Q8NEET 2020 · Q8
Select the correct match.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder due to a mutation in the beta-globin gene on chromosome 11. Haemophilia is X-linked recessive, phenylketonuria is autosomal recessive and thalassemia is autosomal recessive, so those pairs are wrong.
Q9NEET 2020 · Q9
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest | (i) Asterias (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry | (ii) Scorpion (c) Book lungs | (iii) Ctenoplana (d) Bioluminescence | (iv) Locusta
Not quite — the answer is B.
Locusta is the gregarious, polyphagous pest; Asterias (an echinoderm) has radially symmetrical adults but bilaterally symmetrical larvae; scorpions breathe by book lungs; and the ctenophore Ctenoplana is bioluminescent. Hence Locusta, Asterias, Scorpion, Ctenoplana is the correct order.
Q10NEET 2020 · Q10
The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
The female Anopheles mosquito injects sporozoites into human blood when it bites, and these first multiply in liver cells. Trophozoites are stages inside red blood cells, and gametocytes form in human blood and are taken up by the mosquito.
Q11NEET 2020 · Q11
Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Inulin is a polymer of fructose units linked by glycosidic bonds, and insulin is a protein whose amino acids are linked by peptide bonds. Cholesterol is a steroid with neither bond, glycerol is a simple alcohol, and lecithin is a phospholipid, so the other pairs fail.
Q12NEET 2020 · Q14
Identify the correct statement with regard to G₁ phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
Not quite — the answer is C.
G₁ is the interval between mitosis and the start of DNA replication: the cell is metabolically active and keeps growing but does not copy its DNA. DNA replication happens in S phase and nuclear division in M phase.
Q13NEET 2020 · Q15
Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Cuboidal epithelium bearing a brush border of microvilli lines the proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron, where it increases the surface for reabsorption. The intestine is lined by columnar epithelium with microvilli, salivary gland ducts by plain cuboidal epithelium, and the eustachian tube by ciliated epithelium.
Q14NEET 2020 · Q16
Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Inclusion bodies are reserve materials such as phosphate granules, cyanophycean granules and glycogen granules lying free in the prokaryotic cytoplasm without any membrane. They play no part in ingesting food, which is the wrong statement.
Q15NEET 2020 · Q17
Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The Golgi apparatus is the main site where glycoproteins and glycolipids are formed, as it adds sugars to proteins and lipids received from the ER. The ER makes and folds proteins and lipids, while peroxisomes and polysomes do not do this.
Q16NEET 2020 · Q18
In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of:
Not quite — the answer is B.
After gel electrophoresis the DNA is stained with ethidium bromide and seen as bright orange bands under UV light. Acetocarmine is a chromosome stain used in light microscopy, and ethidium bromide does not fluoresce usefully under infrared.
Q17NEET 2020 · Q19
Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.
Not quite — the answer is C.
In the alveoli the conditions that favour oxyhaemoglobin formation are high pO₂, low pCO₂, lower H⁺ concentration and lower temperature. A higher H⁺ concentration favours release of oxygen (as in the tissues), so that statement is wrong.
Q18NEET 2020 · Q20
Ray florets have:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Ray florets of sunflower (Asteraceae) are epigynous: the ovary is fused with the thalamus and the other floral parts arise above it, so the ovary is inferior. Superior (hypogynous) or half-inferior ovaries are not found in this family.
Q19NEET 2020 · Q21
The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
EcoRI recognises the palindrome 5'-GAATTC-3' paired with 3'-CTTAAG-5', which reads the same on both strands in the 5'→3' direction. GGATCC is the BamHI site, and writing CTTAAG as the top 5'→3' strand is not the EcoRI site.
Q20NEET 2020 · Q23
Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
Not quite — the answer is D.
After secondary treatment the floc settles as activated sludge; a small part is sent back to the aeration tank as inoculum and the major part goes into anaerobic sludge digesters. Primary sludge and floating debris are removed earlier, and the primary effluent goes to the aeration tank, not to the digester.
Q21NEET 2020 · Q24
Select the correct events that occur during inspiration. (a) Contraction of diaphragm (b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (c) Pulmonary volume decreases (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
Not quite — the answer is A.
Inspiration starts when the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles contract, which increases the volume of the thoracic cavity and the lungs. The larger pulmonary volume lowers intra-pulmonary pressure below atmospheric, so a decrease in volume and an increase in pressure belong to expiration.
Q22NEET 2020 · Q26
Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata? (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life. (b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only. (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow. (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
Not quite — the answer is D.
In vertebrates the notochord is present only in the embryo and is replaced by the vertebral column, and all chordates have a dorsal, hollow nerve cord, so those two statements are true. In urochordates the notochord is only in the larval tail, and the three subphyla are Urochordata, Cephalochordata and Vertebrata, since Hemichordata is now a separate phylum.
Q23NEET 2020 · Q27
Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis | (i) Cloning vector (b) Thermus aquaticus | (ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens | (iii) DNA polymerase (d) Salmonella typhimurium | (iv) Cry proteins Select the correct option from the following:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Bacillus thuringiensis gives cry proteins, Thermus aquaticus gives the thermostable Taq DNA polymerase, Agrobacterium tumefaciens (Ti plasmid) is used as a cloning vector, and a plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium was used to make the first rDNA molecule. Hence cry proteins, DNA polymerase, cloning vector, first rDNA is the correct order.
Q24NEET 2020 · Q30
Match the following: (a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity | (i) Ricin (b) Possess peptide bonds | (ii) Malonate (c) Cell wall material in fungi | (iii) Chitin (d) Secondary metabolite | (iv) Collagen Choose the correct option from the following:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinate dehydrogenase, collagen is a protein with peptide bonds, chitin is the fungal cell-wall material, and ricin is a toxin listed as a secondary metabolite. Hence malonate, collagen, chitin, ricin is correct.
Q25NEET 2020 · Q31
Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed:
Not quite — the answer is D.
The secondary oocyte released at ovulation is held in meiosis II; entry of the sperm into the ovum triggers completion of this division, giving the ovum and the second polar body. So it is not completed before ovulation or at copulation, and it is finished before the zygote is formed.
Q26NEET 2020 · Q32
According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Robert May's estimate of global species diversity is about 7 million. About 1.5 million is the number of species actually described, and 20 or 50 million are higher estimates by others, not his figure.
Q27NEET 2020 · Q34
Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The tropical Amazon rainforest has the highest species diversity on Earth, for example over 40,000 species of plants and thousands of fishes, birds and insects. The Western Ghats, Madagascar and the Himalayas are rich hotspots but have fewer species than the Amazon.
Q28NEET 2020 · Q35
Which of the following statements is not correct?
Not quite — the answer is C.
In mature insulin the A and B polypeptide chains are joined by disulphide bridges, not by hydrogen bonds. Insulin is indeed made as proinsulin with an extra C-peptide that is removed, and Eli Lilly made human insulin chains in E. coli in 1983.
Q29NEET 2020 · Q36
The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features: (a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath. (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue. (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. (d) Phloem parenchyma absent. Identify the category of plant and its part:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Many scattered, conjoint and closed vascular bundles with bundle sheaths in a large parenchymatous ground tissue, and no phloem parenchyma, are the features of a monocot stem. A dicot stem has bundles in a ring, and roots have radial, not conjoint, vascular bundles.
Q30NEET 2020 · Q37
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits | (i) Trygon (b) Heterocercal caudal fin | (ii) Cyclostomes (c) Air Bladder | (iii) Chondrichthyes (d) Poison sting | (iv) Osteichthyes
Not quite — the answer is A.
Cyclostomes have 6-15 pairs of gill slits, Chondrichthyes have a heterocercal caudal fin, Osteichthyes have an air bladder, and Trygon (sting ray) has a poison sting. Hence Cyclostomes, Chondrichthyes, Osteichthyes, Trygon is correct.
Q31NEET 2020 · Q38
From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Miller made amino acids by passing electric sparks through a closed flask of CH₄, H₂, NH₃ and water vapour at 800°C. CH₃ is a radical and NH₄ is not a gas, so those options are wrong, and the temperature used was 800°C, not 600°C.
Q32NEET 2020 · Q39
Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Ernst Haeckel argued that embryos of all vertebrates share features absent in adults, and Karl Ernst von Baer rejected this, noting that embryos never pass through the adult stages of other animals. Darwin and Wallace proposed natural selection, and Oparin worked on the origin of life.
Q33NEET 2020 · Q41
Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Alkaloids such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are secondary metabolites that protect plants by making them toxic or unpalatable to herbivores. They have no nutritive role and are not growth or reproductive substances.
Q34NEET 2020 · Q43
Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to:
Not quite — the answer is A.
The cry genes of Bacillus thuringiensis code for crystal proteins that kill insect larvae such as cotton bollworms, so Bt cotton resists insect pests. It gives no protection against fungi, and nematode resistance is made by RNA interference, not by Bt toxin.
Q35NEET 2020 · Q44
Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action? (a) Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands. (b) Herbicide resistant weeds. (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes. (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Herbicide-resistant weeds, drug-resistant eukaryotes and man-made breeds of dogs all evolved because of human action (chemicals or artificial selection). Darwin's finches arose by natural adaptive radiation on the Galapagos, not through human activity.
Q36NEET 2020 · Q45
Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full response, because the body must make its own antibodies after meeting the antigen. Passive immunity, from ready-made antibodies such as those passing from mother to foetus, is the quick one.
Q37NEET 2020 · Q48
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) Clostridium butylicum | (i) Cyclosporin-A (b) Trichoderma polysporum | (ii) Butyric Acid (c) Monascus purpureus | (iii) Citric Acid (d) Aspergillus niger | (iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent
Not quite — the answer is B.
Clostridium butylicum produces butyric acid, Trichoderma polysporum gives cyclosporin A, Monascus purpureus gives statins that lower blood cholesterol, and Aspergillus niger produces citric acid. Hence butyric acid, cyclosporin A, cholesterol-lowering agent, citric acid is correct.
Q38NEET 2020 · Q49
Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
Not quite — the answer is C.
In diabetes mellitus excess glucose (glycosuria) and ketone bodies (ketonuria) appear in the urine. Uremia is accumulation of urea in blood seen in kidney failure, and renal calculi are kidney stones, so neither indicates diabetes.
Q39NEET 2020 · Q50
Floridean starch has structure similar to:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Floridean starch, the stored food of red algae, has a structure very similar to amylopectin and glycogen. Mannitol and laminarin are stored food of brown algae, and cellulose and algin are wall materials, not reserve food.
Q40NEET 2020 · Q51
Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
Not quite — the answer is A.
Gonorrhoea, syphilis and genital herpes are all spread by sexual contact. Malaria and filariasis are spread by mosquitoes, and cancer is not an infectious disease, so the other groups each include a non-STD.
Q41NEET 2020 · Q52
Match the following with respect to meiosis: (a) Zygotene | (i) Terminalization (b) Pachytene | (ii) Chiasmata (c) Diplotene | (iii) Crossing over (d) Diakinesis | (iv) Synapsis Select the correct option from the following:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Synapsis of homologues occurs in zygotene, crossing over in pachytene, chiasmata become visible in diplotene, and terminalisation of chiasmata takes place in diakinesis. Hence synapsis, crossing over, chiasmata, terminalisation is correct.
Q42NEET 2020 · Q53
Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
Not quite — the answer is D.
NCERT names Chlorella and Spirulina as unicellular, protein-rich algae used as food supplements. Laminaria, Sargassum, Gelidium and Gracilaria are large multicellular algae, and Volvox is colonial.
Q43NEET 2020 · Q55
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) Bt cotton | (i) Gene therapy (b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency | (ii) Cellular defence (c) RNAi | (iii) Detection of HIV infection (d) PCR | (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis
Not quite — the answer is A.
Bt cotton carries genes from Bacillus thuringiensis, ADA deficiency was the first disease treated by gene therapy, RNA interference is a natural cellular defence against viruses and is used against nematodes, and PCR detects HIV in suspected AIDS patients. Hence Bacillus thuringiensis, gene therapy, cellular defence, HIV detection is correct.
Q44NEET 2020 · Q57
Which of the following is correct about viroids?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Viroids, found by T.O. Diener as the cause of potato spindle tuber disease, are free RNA molecules without any protein coat. Viruses have a protein coat, and viroid RNA is of low molecular weight, not DNA.
Q45NEET 2020 · Q58
The ovary is half inferior in:
Not quite — the answer is D.
In perigynous flowers such as plum, rose and peach the floral parts arise at the rim of the thalamus at about the level of the ovary, so the ovary is called half inferior. Brinjal and mustard have superior ovaries and sunflower an inferior ovary.
Q46NEET 2020 · Q60
Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem. (a) Fourth trophic level | (i) Crow (b) Second trophic level | (ii) Vulture (c) First trophic level | (iii) Rabbit (d) Third trophic level | (iv) Grass Select the correct option:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In a grassland food chain grass is the producer (first level), rabbit the primary consumer (second), crow the secondary consumer (third), and vulture the top carnivore (fourth). Hence vulture, rabbit, grass, crow is correct.
Q47NEET 2020 · Q61
How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Mendel chose 14 true-breeding pea varieties as 7 pairs, each pair differing in one character with contrasting traits. The trap is to answer 7, the number of characters, or 2, the number of traits per character.
Q48NEET 2020 · Q63
In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In water hyacinth and water lily the flowers rise above the water surface and are pollinated by insects or wind, as in most land plants. Water pollination is limited to a few submerged genera such as Vallisneria, Hydrilla and Zostera.
Q49NEET 2020 · Q64
Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
Not quite — the answer is B.
Spraying gibberellins on sugarcane elongates the stem internodes, raising the yield by as much as 20 tonnes per acre. Cytokinins promote cell division, ethylene ripening and senescence, and ABA dormancy, so none of them lengthens the stem.
Q50NEET 2020 · Q65
In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In the Z scheme the electron from PS II goes to plastoquinone, a mobile carrier that passes it to the cytochrome b₆f complex; plastocyanin then carries it on to PS I. Reduction of NADP⁺ happens after PS I, through ferredoxin, not plastoquinone.
Q51NEET 2020 · Q67
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
Not quite — the answer is D.
In transcription RNA polymerase itself opens the DNA helix and elongates the RNA, with no separate helicase needed. DNA helicase opens the helix in replication, and DNA ligase and DNA polymerase are replication enzymes.
Q52NEET 2020 · Q68
Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na⁺ and water from the distal parts of the tubule, which reduces urine output and prevents diuresis. Under-secretion of ADH reduces water reabsorption and causes diuresis, ANF causes vasodilation and opposes the renin-angiotensin system, and less renin means less aldosterone.
Q53NEET 2020 · Q69
In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
Not quite — the answer is B.
NPP = GPP − R, where R is the energy used in respiration by the producers, so GPP is always greater than NPP. GPP cannot be less than or equal to NPP, because respiration losses are always present.
Q54NEET 2020 · Q70
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) Placenta | (i) Androgens (b) Zona pellucida | (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) (c) Bulbo-urethral glands | (iii) Layer of the ovum (d) Leydig cells | (iv) Lubrication of the Penis
Not quite — the answer is D.
The placenta secretes hCG, the zona pellucida is a layer around the ovum, bulbourethral gland secretions lubricate the penis, and Leydig cells secrete androgens. Hence hCG, layer of the ovum, lubrication, androgens is correct.
Q55NEET 2020 · Q71
Strobili or cones are found in:
Not quite — the answer is D.
In Equisetum (and Selaginella) the sporophylls are packed into compact strobili or cones. Salvinia bears spores in sporocarps, Pteris has sori on the leaf margin, and Marchantia is a liverwort whose sporophyte has no cones.
Q56NEET 2020 · Q73
Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Penguin flippers (bird wing) and dolphin flippers (mammal forelimb) have similar function and shape but come from different lineages, an example of convergent evolution (analogy). Adaptive radiation is divergence from a common ancestor, and industrial melanism is a case of natural selection in moths.
Q57NEET 2020 · Q74
If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10⁹ bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Length = number of base pairs × distance per base pair = 6.6 × 10⁹ × 0.34 × 10⁻⁹ m = 2.244 m, which is about 2.2 m. The values 2.0, 2.5 and 2.7 m do not match the product.
Q58NEET 2020 · Q75
The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The QRS complex marks depolarisation of the ventricles, which starts ventricular contraction. The P wave is atrial depolarisation, the T wave is ventricular repolarisation, and atrial repolarisation is hidden in the QRS and has no separate wave.
Q59NEET 2020 · Q76
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) Eosinophils | (i) Immune response (b) Basophils | (ii) Phagocytosis (c) Neutrophils | (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes (d) Lymphocytes | (iv) Release granules containing histamine
Not quite — the answer is A.
Eosinophils resist infection and are linked to allergy (release of histaminase and destructive enzymes), basophils release granules with histamine, serotonin and heparin, neutrophils are phagocytic, and lymphocytes carry out immune responses. Hence histaminase, histamine, phagocytosis, immune response is correct.
Q60NEET 2020 · Q77
Which of the following statements is correct?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Adenine pairs with thymine through two hydrogen bonds, while guanine pairs with cytosine through three. A-T pairing is the basis of Chargaff's rule, so it never pairs through one or three bonds and does pair with thymine.
Q61NEET 2020 · Q78
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed:
Not quite — the answer is B.
The origin of replication (ori) is where replication starts, and it also controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector. Selectable markers help pick transformants, and palindromic and recognition sequences are restriction enzyme sites.
Q62NEET 2020 · Q79
Identify the basic amino acid from the following.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Lysine has an extra amino group in its R group, making it a basic amino acid. Glutamic acid is acidic, while tyrosine (aromatic) and valine are neutral.
Q63NEET 2020 · Q80
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) Pituitary gland | (i) Grave's disease (b) Thyroid gland | (ii) Diabetes mellitus (c) Adrenal gland | (iii) Diabetes insipidus (d) Pancreas | (iv) Addison's disease
Not quite — the answer is C.
Low ADH from the pituitary causes diabetes insipidus, hyperthyroidism causes Graves' disease, low adrenal cortex hormones cause Addison's disease, and insulin deficiency from the pancreas causes diabetes mellitus. Hence diabetes insipidus, Graves' disease, Addison's disease, diabetes mellitus is correct.
Q64NEET 2020 · Q81
Select the correct statement.
Not quite — the answer is A.
Glucocorticoids such as cortisol stimulate gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis, raising blood glucose. Glucagon causes hyperglycaemia, insulin causes hypoglycaemia, and insulin acts mainly on liver cells and adipocytes, not on pancreatic cells.
Q65NEET 2020 · Q82
Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Collagen is the most abundant protein in the animal world. RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in the whole biosphere, and haemoglobin, lectin and insulin are present in far smaller amounts.
Q66NEET 2020 · Q83
Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Thomas Hunt Morgan's work on Drosophila gave the experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance. Sutton and Boveri proposed the theory, and Mendel worked before chromosomes were linked to heredity.
Q67NEET 2020 · Q84
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) Floating Ribs | (i) Located between second and seventh ribs (b) Acromion | (ii) Head of the Humerus (c) Scapula | (iii) Clavicle (d) Glenoid cavity | (iv) Do not connect with the sternum
Not quite — the answer is D.
Floating ribs (11th and 12th pairs) do not connect with the sternum, the acromion process of the scapula meets the clavicle, the scapula lies between the second and seventh ribs, and the glenoid cavity receives the head of the humerus. Hence not joined to sternum, clavicle, between second and seventh ribs, head of humerus is correct.
Q68NEET 2020 · Q85
The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
In one turn of the Krebs cycle only one substrate-level phosphorylation occurs: succinyl-CoA is converted to succinic acid with formation of one GTP (or ATP). The other ATP comes from oxidative phosphorylation of NADH and FADH₂, so zero, two or three are wrong.
Q69NEET 2020 · Q86
Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:
Not quite — the answer is C.
In diplotene the synaptonemal complex formed in zygotene dissolves and the homologues start to separate, except at the chiasmata. It forms in zygotene, is present through pachytene, and has not formed in leptotene.
Q70NEET 2020 · Q87
Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) are bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate. Ctenophores are radially symmetrical, Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate, and annelids are true coelomates.
Q71NEET 2020 · Q88
The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:
Not quite — the answer is A.
The hilum is the point where the body of the ovule is fused with the funicle (stalk). The micropyle is the opening at the tip of the integuments, the chalaza is the base opposite the micropyle, and the nucellus is the tissue inside the integuments.
Q72NEET 2020 · Q89
Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Goblet cells, which secrete mucus in the alimentary canal, are modified columnar epithelial cells. Squamous cells are flat lining cells, compound epithelium is protective, and chondrocytes are cartilage cells.
Biology: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 11 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
11 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2020 · Q25
If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because:
Not quite — the answer is C.
In cockroach only a small part of the nervous system (the supra-oesophageal ganglia, or brain) is in the head; the rest, a ventral nerve cord with segmental ganglia, runs along the ventral side of the body. So a headless cockroach can survive for a few days, whereas the nervous system is not dorsal and the brain is not in the abdomen.
Q2NEET 2020 · Q28
Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants: (a) Iron | (i) Photolysis of water (b) Zinc | (ii) Pollen germination (c) Boron | (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis (d) Manganese | (iv) IAA biosynthesis Select the correct option:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Iron is needed for chlorophyll biosynthesis (and in ferredoxin and cytochromes), zinc for synthesis of auxin (IAA), boron for pollen germination, and manganese for the splitting of water in photosynthesis. Pairing iron with pollen germination or zinc with photolysis is wrong.
Q3NEET 2020 · Q29
Identify the incorrect statement.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Sapwood is the outer, lighter-coloured, functional secondary xylem that conducts water, while heartwood is the inner, dark, non-conducting wood. Calling sapwood the innermost secondary xylem is therefore wrong; the other three statements are correct.
Q4NEET 2020 · Q40
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
At night and early morning when transpiration is low, root pressure pushes water up and out through hydathodes at the leaf tips (guttation), as seen on grass blades. Transpiration loses water as vapour, and imbibition and plasmolysis do not move liquid water out of leaves.
Q5NEET 2020 · Q46
By which method was a new breed 'Hisardale' of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Hisardale was made by cross-breeding Bikaneri ewes with Marino rams, that is mating superior animals of two different breeds to combine their qualities. Outcrossing is mating within the same breed with no common ancestor, and inbreeding is mating close relatives.
Q6NEET 2020 · Q47
Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.
Not quite — the answer is C.
The ileum is the highly coiled last part of the small intestine and opens into the large intestine. Serosa is the outermost layer of the gut wall, not the innermost (the mucosa), and the vermiform appendix arises from the caecum, not the duodenum.
Q7NEET 2020 · Q56
Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of:
Not quite — the answer is B.
The Montreal Protocol (1987) was signed to control the emission of ozone-depleting substances such as CFCs. Transboundary movement of GM organisms is covered by the Cartagena Protocol, and greenhouse gases by the Kyoto Protocol.
Q8NEET 2020 · Q59
The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa, converts inactive trypsinogen into active trypsin, which then activates the other pancreatic proenzymes. Pepsinogen is activated by HCl, and caseinogen is changed to casein by rennin/pepsin.
Q9NEET 2020 · Q62
Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column - I | Column - II (a) Organ of Corti | (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx (b) Cochlea | (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth (c) Eustachian tube | (iii) Attached to the oval window (d) Stapes | (iv) Located on the basilar membrane
Not quite — the answer is C.
The organ of Corti lies on the basilar membrane, the cochlea is the coiled part of the labyrinth, the eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the pharynx, and the stapes is attached to the oval window. Hence basilar membrane, coiled labyrinth, middle ear to pharynx, oval window is correct.
Q10NEET 2020 · Q66
Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Gibberellic acid breaks seed dormancy and promotes germination, so it is not an inhibitor. Abscisic acid, phenolic acids and para-ascorbic acid are the inhibitors that keep seeds dormant.
Q11NEET 2020 · Q90
Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to:
Not quite — the answer is B.
A high dose of UV-B, made worse by ozone depletion over Antarctica, causes inflammation of the cornea called snow-blindness. Glare from snow alone or freezing of eye fluids is not the cause, and infrared rays do not cause it.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2020 Biology
- Biotechnology: Principles and Processes5 Q
- Biomolecules5 Q
- Principles of Inheritance and Variation4 Q
- Animal Kingdom4 Q
- Evolution4 Q
- Morphology of Flowering Plants3 Q
- Human Health and Disease3 Q
- Cell Cycle and Cell Division3 Q
- Biotechnology and Its Applications3 Q
- Plant Kingdom3 Q
- Molecular Basis of Inheritance3 Q
- Plant Growth and Development2 Q
- Reproductive Health2 Q
- Structural Organisation in Animals2 Q
- Cell: The Unit of Life2 Q
- Breathing and Exchange of Gases2 Q
- Microbes in Human Welfare2 Q
- Human Reproduction2 Q
- Biodiversity and Conservation2 Q
- Excretory Products and Their Elimination2 Q
- Ecosystem2 Q
- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants2 Q
- Body Fluids and Circulation2 Q
- Chemical Coordination and Integration2 Q
- Organisms and Populations1 Q
- Anatomy of Flowering Plants1 Q
- Biological Classification1 Q
- Photosynthesis in Higher Plants1 Q
- Locomotion and Movement1 Q
- Respiration in Plants1 Q
About this paper
How many questions from NEET 2020 are on this page?
168 questions (Physics 42, Chemistry 43, Biology 83). Questions that need a diagram we could not reproduce, or whose wording in the source was unclear, are left out.
Are these the original questions?
Yes. The questions and options are as set in the NEET 2020 paper, conducted by NTA. The answer to every question was checked by the RankUp team, and the explanations are RankUp's own.
Is NEET 2020 useful for NEET 2027?
Yes. The NEET syllabus is built on the same NCERT books. 20 questions here are on topics NCERT has since dropped; they are listed separately so you can skip them.
More NEET and AIPMT papers
Practise thousands more questions chapter-wise in the RankUp app.
- NEET 2021
- NEET 2019
- NEET 2018
- NEET 2017
- NEET 2017 (Gujarati paper)
- NEET 2016 Phase 2
- NEET 2016 Phase 1
- AIPMT 2015
- AIPMT 2014
- NEET 2013
- AIPMT 2012 Mains
- AIPMT 2012 Prelims
- AIPMT 2011 Mains
- AIPMT 2011 Prelims
- AIPMT 2010 Mains
- AIPMT 2010 Prelims
- AIPMT 2009 Prelims
- AIPMT 2008 Prelims
- AIPMT 2007 Prelims
- AIPMT 2006 Prelims
- AIPMT 2005 Prelims
- All NEET PYQs
