NEET 2013 Question PaperPhysics, Chemistry and Biology, with checked answers and solutions
By the RankUp team, founded by Dr. Deepak Sahu (MBBS Gold Medalist, NEET PG AIR 1731) · Updated
147 questions from the NEET 2013 paper, conducted by CBSE. Tap an option to check your answer and read why it is right. Each subject has a free PDF with the answer key and explanations.
- Exam
- NEET 2013
- Conducted by
- CBSE
- Physics
- 36 questions
- Chemistry
- 43 questions
- Biology
- 68 questions
NEET 2013 Physics questions
35 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2013
In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows: P = a³b²/(cd). % error in P is
Not quite — the answer is A.
Maximum fractional errors add with powers as weights: ΔP/P = 3(1%) + 2(2%) + 3% + 4% = 3 + 4 + 3 + 4 = 14%. Getting 10% comes from ignoring the powers and just adding the four errors.
Q2NEET 2013
The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is (2î + 3ĵ) m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point B (the point where it returns to the same horizontal level as A) is
Not quite — the answer is C.
With no horizontal force the horizontal component stays 2î, while at the same level the vertical component has the same size but reverses, becoming −3ĵ. So the velocity at B is 2î − 3ĵ; reversing both components would wrongly reverse the horizontal motion too.
Q3NEET 2013
A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h₁, h₂ and h₃ in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between h₁, h₂ and h₃ is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Starting from rest, distances covered in successive equal time intervals are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5 (Galileo's law of odd numbers). So h₂ = 3h₁ and h₃ = 5h₁, i.e. h₁ = h₂/3 = h₃/5. Equal distances would hold only for uniform velocity.
Q4NEET 2013
Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings (m at the top, 2m below it and 3m at the bottom). After an upward force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v. What is the net force on the block of mass 2m? (g is the acceleration due to gravity)
Not quite — the answer is A.
All three blocks move at constant velocity, so their acceleration is zero and by Newton's second law the net force on each block, including 2m, is zero. 2mg is only the weight of that block, which is balanced by the string tensions.
Q5NEET 2013
The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination θ is perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction between the block and lower half of the plane is given by
Not quite — the answer is C.
Let the plane length be L. Gain in KE from gravity over the full length, mg sin θ·L, must equal the friction work on the rough lower half, μ mg cos θ·(L/2). This gives μ = 2 tan θ. μ = tan θ would only stop the acceleration on the rough part, not bring the block to rest.
Q6NEET 2013
A uniform force of (3î + ĵ) newton acts on a particle of mass 2 kg. Hence the particle is displaced from position (2î + k̂) metre to position (4î + 3ĵ − k̂) metre. The work done by the force on the particle is
Not quite — the answer is A.
Displacement d = (4î + 3ĵ − k̂) − (2î + k̂) = 2î + 3ĵ − 2k̂. W = F·d = 3 × 2 + 1 × 3 + 0 × (−2) = 9 J. The mass of the particle is not needed for the work done by a given force.
Q7NEET 2013
An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 m s⁻¹ and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 m s⁻¹ speed. If the third part flies off with 4 m s⁻¹ speed, then its mass is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Initial momentum is zero. The first two momenta are 1 × 12 = 12 and 2 × 8 = 16 kg m s⁻¹ at right angles, giving a resultant √(12² + 16²) = 20 kg m s⁻¹. The third part must carry 20 kg m s⁻¹ in the opposite direction, so m = 20/4 = 5 kg.
Q8NEET 2013
A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless string tied to point Q (the string is vertical). When the string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is
Not quite — the answer is A.
About the hinge P, the weight acts at L/2: torque = Mg(L/2). Moment of inertia of a rod about its end = ML²/3. α = Mg(L/2)/(ML²/3) = 3g/(2L). Using g/L treats the rod as a point mass at the end.
Q9NEET 2013
A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity v. It reaches up to a maximum height of 3v²/(4g) with respect to the initial position. The object is
Not quite — the answer is D.
Rolling KE = (1/2)mv²(1 + k²/R²) is converted to mgh = mg × 3v²/(4g) = (3/4)mv². So 1 + k²/R² = 3/2, k²/R² = 1/2, which is the value for a disc. A solid sphere (k²/R² = 2/5) or a ring (k²/R² = 1) would rise to different heights.
Q10NEET 2013
A body of mass m is taken from the earth's surface to the height equal to twice the radius (R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be
Not quite — the answer is B.
ΔU = GMm/R − GMm/3R = (2/3)GMm/R = (2/3)mgR, using GM = gR². The answer 2mgR comes from wrongly using mgh with h = 2R, which is valid only for heights much smaller than R.
Q11NEET 2013
Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg, are situated on x-axis at distances 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m, … respectively, from the origin. The resulting gravitational potential due to this system at the origin will be
Not quite — the answer is D.
V = −Gm(1/1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + …) = −G × 2 × [1/(1 − 1/2)] = −G × 2 × 2 = −4G. Forgetting the 2 kg mass gives −2G-type answers; the sum of the geometric series is 2.
Q12NEET 2013
The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Extension ΔL = FL/(AY) ∝ L/d² for the same material and tension. L/d² = 50/0.25 = 200, 100/1 = 100, 200/4 = 50 and 300/9 ≈ 33 (cm/mm²), so the 50 cm, 0.5 mm wire stretches most. The longest wire is not the answer because its larger area wins.
Q13NEET 2013
The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on -
Not quite — the answer is D.
Whether a liquid wets a surface is decided by the angle of contact: an acute angle means wetting, an obtuse angle means non-wetting. Surface tension alone does not decide this, since the contact angle depends on the balance of adhesive and cohesive forces.
Q14NEET 2013
The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by Cp and Cv, respectively. If γ = Cp/Cv and R is the universal gas constant, then Cv is equal to
Not quite — the answer is B.
Mayer's relation Cp − Cv = R with Cp = γCv gives γCv − Cv = R, so Cv = R/(γ − 1). The expression γR/(γ − 1) would be Cp, and (γ − 1)/R is the inverse of the correct result.
Q15NEET 2013
A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using -
Not quite — the answer is B.
Wien's displacement law, λₘT = constant, says that the wavelength of maximum emission shifts to shorter values as temperature rises, so the colour changes from red towards yellow and white. Stefan's law gives only the total power radiated, not the colour.
Q16NEET 2013
During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. The ratio of Cp/Cv for the gas is
Not quite — the answer is D.
For an adiabatic process PV^γ = constant combined with PV = nRT gives P ∝ T^(γ/(γ − 1)). Setting γ/(γ − 1) = 3 gives γ = 3γ − 3, so γ = 3/2. 5/3 is the monatomic value and does not satisfy the given relation.
Q17NEET 2013
A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having displacement along y-direction as 1 m, wavelength 2π m and frequency of 1/π Hz is represented by
Not quite — the answer is A.
k = 2π/λ = 2π/2π = 1 m⁻¹ and ω = 2πf = 2π × (1/π) = 2 rad s⁻¹, amplitude 1 m. A wave along +x is y = A sin(kx − ωt) = sin(x − 2t). A plus sign between the terms would describe a wave moving along −x.
Q18NEET 2013
A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s when sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz. The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is
Not quite — the answer is A.
4 beats with 250 Hz means f = 254 Hz or 246 Hz. Second harmonics are 508 Hz or 492 Hz; only 508 Hz gives 513 − 508 = 5 beats per second. So f = 254 Hz; 246 Hz would give 21 beats.
Q19NEET 2013
Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal length; the equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now becomes
Not quite — the answer is B.
For a ball at equilibrium, tan θ = F/mg; with small angles tan θ ≈ (r/2)/L, so (r/2)/L = kq²/(r²mg), giving r³ ∝ L. Clamping at half the height halves the effective length, so r′³ = r³/2 and r′ = r/∛2.
Q20NEET 2013
A wire of resistance 4Ω is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be -
Not quite — the answer is D.
Stretching keeps the volume constant, so doubling the length halves the cross-section. R = ρl/A becomes ρ(2l)/(A/2) = 4R = 4 × 4 = 16 Ω. 8 Ω only accounts for the change in length.
Q21NEET 2013
The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 Ω is
Not quite — the answer is B.
I = E/(R + r): 0.2 = 2.1/(10 + r), so 10 + r = 10.5 and r = 0.5 Ω.
Q22NEET 2013
When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a₀ towards west. When it is projected towards north with a speed v₀ it moves with an initial acceleration 3a₀ towards west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are
Not quite — the answer is B.
At rest only the electric force acts: eE = ma₀ westward, so E = ma₀/e towards west. Moving north, the extra 2ma₀ westward comes from the magnetic force: ev₀B = 2ma₀, B = 2ma₀/(ev₀). For a positive charge, v (north) × B must point west, which happens when B points down.
Q23NEET 2013
A current loop in a magnetic field -
Not quite — the answer is D.
Torque on a loop is τ = m × B, which is zero when the magnetic moment is parallel or antiparallel to B. The parallel position (minimum energy) is stable and the antiparallel position (maximum energy) is unstable. A loop does not feel a torque in every orientation.
Q24NEET 2013
A bar magnet of length l and magnetic dipole moment M is bent in the form of an arc of a circle of radius r subtending an angle of 60° at the centre. The new magnetic dipole moment will be
Not quite — the answer is B.
Pole strength stays m with M = ml. The arc length l = r(π/3), so r = 3l/π. The poles are now joined by a chord subtending 60°, whose length equals r, so M′ = m × 3l/π = 3M/π.
Q25NEET 2013
A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced e.m.f. is -
Not quite — the answer is B.
The induced emf in a rotating loop is e = NBAω sin ωt, which changes sign twice in each full rotation (at 0 and π). So the direction reverses twice per revolution.
Q26NEET 2013
A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb decreases when -
Not quite — the answer is D.
An iron rod increases the inductance L, raising XL = ωL and the impedance, so the current and the bulb's brightness drop. Lowering the frequency, reducing the turns or adding a capacitor with XC = XL all reduce the net reactance and make the bulb brighter.
Q27NEET 2013
Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is
Not quite — the answer is A.
Longest wavelengths: Lyman (2 → 1): 1/λ = R(1 − 1/4) = 3R/4, λ = 4/(3R). Balmer (3 → 2): 1/λ = R(1/4 − 1/9) = 5R/36, λ = 36/(5R). Ratio = (4/3)/(36/5) = 20/108 = 5/27.
Q28NEET 2013
The half-life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 20 years. It decays to another element ‘Y’ which is stable. The two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to be in the ratio 1 : 7 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be -
Not quite — the answer is B.
X : Y = 1 : 7 means 1/8 of the original X remains. 1/8 = (1/2)³, so three half-lives have passed: 3 × 20 = 60 years. 80 years would leave 1/16.
Q29NEET 2013
For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cutoff frequency is ν. If radiation of frequency 2ν impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the electron mass)
Not quite — the answer is C.
Work function = hν (cutoff). KEmax = h(2ν) − hν = hν = (1/2)mv², so v = √(2hν/m). Using √(hν/m) drops the factor 2 from the kinetic energy formula.
Q30NEET 2013
The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a photon of same energy E are related by
Not quite — the answer is A.
Electron: λe = h/√(2mE), so λe² ∝ 1/E. Photon: λp = hc/E ∝ 1/E. Therefore λp ∝ λe². A direct proportion would be true only if both depended on E in the same way.
Q31NEET 2013
A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices μ₁ and μ₂ and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Plano-convex: 1/f₁ = (μ₁ − 1)/R; plano-concave of the same curvature: 1/f₂ = −(μ₂ − 1)/R. In contact: 1/f = (μ₁ − μ₂)/R, so f = R/(μ₁ − μ₂). A factor of 2 would appear only for double-curved lenses.
Q32NEET 2013
For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40 D and the least converging power of the eye lens behind the cornea is 20 D. Using this information, the distance between the retina and the cornea-eye lens can be estimated to be
Not quite — the answer is C.
For a relaxed normal eye viewing a distant object, the total power 40 + 20 = 60 D must focus the image on the retina. f = 1/60 m = 100/60 cm ≈ 1.67 cm, which is the cornea–retina distance. Using only the cornea power (40 D) gives 2.5 cm.
Q33NEET 2013
In Young's double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths λ₁ = 12000 Å and λ₂ = 10000 Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Fringe width β = λD/d: β₁ = (12000 × 10⁻¹⁰ × 2)/(2 × 10⁻³) = 1.2 mm and β₂ = 1.0 mm. Bright fringes coincide when n₁(1.2) = n₂(1.0), first at n₁ = 5, n₂ = 6, i.e. 6 mm from the centre.
Q34NEET 2013
A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statements is correct ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Faster electrons have a smaller de Broglie wavelength λ = h/(mv). The angular width of the central maximum is about 2λ/a, so it decreases. Electrons do show diffraction because of their wave nature.
Q35NEET 2013
In an n-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true?
Not quite — the answer is C.
An n-type semiconductor is made by doping with pentavalent atoms (e.g. P, As), which donate electrons. Electrons become the majority carriers and holes the minority carriers. Trivalent dopants would give p-type material.
Physics: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 1 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
1 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2013
In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage gain G, the transistor used has transconductance 0.03 mho and current gain 25. If the above transistor is replaced with another one with transconductance 0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage gain will be
Not quite — the answer is A.
Voltage gain of a CE amplifier Av = gm × RL. With the same load resistance, G′/G = 0.02/0.03, so G′ = (2/3)G. The current gain does not enter this relation, so using 20/25 gives a wrong answer.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2013 Physics
- Laws of Motion3 Q
- System of Particles and Rotational Motion2 Q
- Gravitation2 Q
- Waves2 Q
- Current Electricity2 Q
- Moving Charges and Magnetism2 Q
- Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter2 Q
- Ray Optics and Optical Instruments2 Q
- Wave Optics2 Q
- Units and Measurements1 Q
- Motion in a Plane1 Q
- Motion in a Straight Line1 Q
- Work, Energy and Power1 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Solids1 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Fluids1 Q
- Kinetic Theory1 Q
- Thermal Properties of Matter1 Q
- Thermodynamics1 Q
- Electric Charges and Fields1 Q
- Magnetism and Matter1 Q
- Electromagnetic Induction1 Q
- Alternating Current1 Q
- Atoms1 Q
- Nuclei1 Q
- Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits1 Q
NEET 2013 Chemistry questions
36 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2013
The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s. The speed of light is 3 × 10¹⁷ nm s⁻¹. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometre of a quantum of light with frequency of 6 × 10¹⁵ s⁻¹?
Not quite — the answer is C.
λ = c/ν = (3 × 10¹⁷ nm s⁻¹)/(6 × 10¹⁵ s⁻¹) = 50 nm. Planck's constant is not needed to find the wavelength.
Q2NEET 2013
What is the maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following set of quantum numbers? n = 3, l = 1 and m = −1.
Not quite — the answer is D.
n = 3, l = 1, m = −1 specifies one particular 3p orbital. One orbital holds at most two electrons with opposite spins. 6 is the capacity of the whole 3p subshell.
Q3NEET 2013
What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20°C to 35°C? (R = 8.314 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is C.
log(k₂/k₁) = (Ea/2.303R)(T₂ − T₁)/(T₁T₂) with T₁ = 293 K, T₂ = 308 K. Ea = 2.303 × 8.314 × 0.3010 × (293 × 308)/15 = 5.763 × 6016 ≈ 3.47 × 10⁴ J mol⁻¹ = 34.7 kJ mol⁻¹.
Q4NEET 2013
A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 10 and by passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at one atm pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be
Not quite — the answer is B.
For H₂ → 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ at 1 atm, E(oxidation) = 0 − (0.059/2) log[H⁺]² = −0.059 log[H⁺] = 0.059 × pH. With pH 10: 0.059 × 10 = 0.59 V. 0.059 V would correspond to pH 1.
Q5NEET 2013
A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions has
Not quite — the answer is C.
ΔH = Ea(forward) − Ea(reverse). If the two activation energies are equal, ΔH = 0. ΔG and ΔS need not be zero, since they also depend on entropy changes.
Q6NEET 2013
At 25°C molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is 9.54 ohm⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹ and at infinite dilution its molar conductance is 238 ohm⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹. The degree of ionisation of ammonium hydroxide at the same concentration and temperature is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Degree of ionisation α = Λm/Λ°m = 9.54/238 = 0.04008, i.e. 4.008%. 40.8% comes from misplacing the decimal.
Q7NEET 2013
Based on equation E = −2.178 × 10⁻¹⁸ J (Z²/n²), certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not correct?
Not quite — the answer is D.
For n = 1 the energy is the most negative, which means the electron is most tightly bound in the smallest orbit, not more loosely bound, so that conclusion is wrong. The other statements correctly describe the negative sign, the growth of radius with n and use of the equation for energy changes.
Q8NEET 2013
A button cell used in watches functions as following: Zn(s) + Ag₂O(s) + H₂O(l) ⇌ 2Ag(s) + Zn²⁺(aq) + 2OH⁻(aq) If half cell potentials are Zn²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ → Zn(s); E° = −0.76 V Ag₂O(s) + H₂O(l) + 2e⁻ → 2Ag(s) + 2OH⁻(aq); E° = 0.34 V The cell potential will be
Not quite — the answer is A.
Zinc is oxidised (anode) and Ag₂O reduced (cathode). E°cell = E°cathode − E°anode = 0.34 − (−0.76) = 1.10 V. Subtracting the magnitudes gives 0.42 V, which ignores the sign of the zinc potential.
Q9NEET 2013
How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M HNO₃? The concentrated acid is 70% HNO₃.
Not quite — the answer is A.
Moles of HNO₃ = 2.0 × 0.250 = 0.50 mol = 0.50 × 63 = 31.5 g. The 70% solution needed = 31.5/0.70 = 45.0 g. 90 g comes from doubling the moles.
Q10NEET 2013
A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following
Not quite — the answer is A.
1.73 BM = √(n(n + 2)) with n = 1 unpaired electron. Cu²⁺ (3d⁹) in [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺ has one unpaired electron. [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is square planar and diamagnetic, TiCl₄ has Ti⁴⁺ (3d⁰), and [CoCl₆]⁴⁻ has high-spin Co²⁺ (3d⁷) with three unpaired electrons.
Q11NEET 2013
Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
CO, CN⁻ and NO⁺ are isoelectronic with 14 electrons and have all electrons paired. O₂⁻ has 17 electrons, with one unpaired electron in a π* orbital, so it is paramagnetic.
Q12NEET 2013
Reaction by which benzaldehyde cannot be prepared
Not quite — the answer is D.
Etard reaction (toluene + CrO₂Cl₂), Rosenmund reduction (benzoyl chloride + H₂/Pd–BaSO₄) and Gattermann–Koch reaction (benzene + CO + HCl/AlCl₃) all give benzaldehyde. Zn/Hg with conc. HCl (Clemmensen conditions) does not convert benzoic acid into benzaldehyde.
Q13NEET 2013
Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
(NH₄)₂Cr₂O₇ → N₂ + Cr₂O₃ + 4H₂O on heating, releasing nitrogen, not oxygen. KClO₃ and Zn(ClO₃)₂ release O₂, and K₂Cr₂O₇ on strong heating gives K₂CrO₄, Cr₂O₃ and O₂.
Q14NEET 2013
Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic ? (At. No. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)
Not quite — the answer is D.
Yb (Z = 70) is [Xe]4f¹⁴6s², so Yb²⁺ is 4f¹⁴ with every electron paired: diamagnetic. Ce²⁺ (4f²), Sm²⁺ (4f⁶) and Eu²⁺ (4f⁷) all have unpaired f electrons.
Q15NEET 2013
Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium
Not quite — the answer is D.
Na₂S is an ionic alkali-metal sulphide and is freely soluble. ZnS (Ksp ≈ 10⁻²²) is sparingly soluble, and CuS (Ksp ≈ 10⁻³⁶) is far less soluble. So the order is Na₂S > ZnS > CuS.
Q16NEET 2013
XeF₂ is isostructural with
Not quite — the answer is B.
XeF₂ has 5 electron pairs (2 bond pairs, 3 lone pairs), sp³d, and is linear. ICl₂⁻ also has 2 bond pairs and 3 lone pairs, so it is linear too. TeF₂ is bent and SbCl₃ is pyramidal; BaCl₂ is an ionic solid.
Q17NEET 2013 · Q60
Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a byproduct. This is a colourless gas with choking smell of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic, acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The gas X is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Roasting sulphide ores gives SO₂, a colourless gas with the choking smell of burning sulphur that contributes to acid rain. Its aqueous solution, H₂SO₃, is acidic and reducing but has never been isolated. H₂S smells of rotten eggs, and SO₃ is not produced as the main by-product.
Q18NEET 2013
An excess of AgNO₃ is added to 100 mL of a 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetraaquachromium(III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be
Not quite — the answer is A.
Dichlorotetraaquachromium(III) chloride is [Cr(H₂O)₄Cl₂]Cl, with only one chloride outside the coordination sphere. Moles of complex = 0.01 × 0.100 = 0.001 mol, giving 0.001 mol AgCl. Coordinated chlorides are not precipitated, so 0.003 is wrong.
Q19NEET 2013 · Q61
Which is the strongest acid in the following ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
HClO₄ has chlorine in its highest oxidation state (+7), and its conjugate base ClO₄⁻ is highly stabilised by resonance, making it the strongest acid. H₂SO₄ is strong but weaker than HClO₄, while HClO₃ and H₂SO₃ are weaker still.
Q20NEET 2013
Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
A Lewis base donates an electron pair. CO, F⁻ and PF₃ all have lone pairs to donate, but boron in BF₃ has only six valence electrons and accepts a pair, so BF₃ is a Lewis acid.
Q21NEET 2013
KMnO₄ can be prepared from K₂MnO₄ as per the reaction: 3MnO₄²⁻ + 2H₂O ⇌ 2MnO₄⁻ + MnO₂ + 4OH⁻. The reaction can go to completion by removing OH⁻ ions by adding
Not quite — the answer is C.
CO₂ is weakly acidic and neutralises OH⁻ (forming carbonate) without reacting with the permanganate, pushing the equilibrium to the right. HCl and SO₂ are reducing agents that would be oxidised by MnO₄⁻, and KOH would add OH⁻ and push the reaction backwards.
Q22NEET 2013 · Q63
Which of the following structure is similar to graphite ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Hexagonal boron nitride, known as 'inorganic graphite', has flat layers of alternating B and N atoms in hexagons, like graphite. Elemental boron and B₄C have three-dimensional network structures, and B₂H₆ is a molecular hydride.
Q23NEET 2013
Which of the following is electron-deficient?
Not quite — the answer is C.
(BH₃)₂ is diborane, B₂H₆. Each boron has only three valence electrons, so the molecule lacks enough electrons for normal two-electron bonds and uses 3-centre-2-electron B–H–B bonds: it is electron deficient. Ethane, disilane and PH₃ have complete octets.
Q24NEET 2013 · Q64
The basic structural unit of silicates is
Not quite — the answer is B.
All silicates are built from the SiO₄⁴⁻ tetrahedron, with Si at the centre and four O atoms at the corners. Sharing corners gives chains, sheets and frameworks, but the basic unit stays SiO₄⁴⁻.
Q25NEET 2013
Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Interstitial compounds (small atoms like H, C, N trapped in metal lattices) keep metallic conductivity, are very hard and have high melting points, but they are chemically inert. So calling them chemically reactive is incorrect.
Q26NEET 2013
Which one of the following molecules contains no π bond?
Not quite — the answer is B.
H₂O has only two O–H σ bonds. CO₂ (O=C=O), SO₂ and NO₂ all contain double-bond character and so π bonds.
Q27NEET 2013
Among the following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated HI?
Not quite — the answer is C.
With tert-butyl methyl ether, HI cleavage goes by SN1 through the stable tert-butyl carbocation, giving tert-butyl iodide and methyl alcohol. For the primary and secondary alkyl methyl ethers the reaction is SN2, where I⁻ attacks the less hindered methyl group, giving methyl iodide and the other alcohol.
Q28NEET 2013
The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is
Not quite — the answer is A.
Isobutyl is (CH₃)₂CH–CH₂–, attached through a CH₂ next to the branched carbon. CH₃–CH(–)–CH₂–CH₃ is sec-butyl, (CH₃)₃C– is tert-butyl and the straight chain is n-butyl.
Q29NEET 2013
Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO₃/H₂SO₄ at 80–100°C forms which one of the following products?
Not quite — the answer is B.
–NO₂ is a strong deactivating, meta-directing group, so the second nitro group enters the meta position, giving 1,3-dinitrobenzene. Ortho/para dinitro products would need an ortho/para-directing group.
Q30NEET 2013
Some meta-directing substituents in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating?
Not quite — the answer is D.
All four groups withdraw electrons and are meta directing, but –NO₂ deactivates the ring most strongly through its large −I and −R effects. –C≡N, –SO₃H and –COOH are deactivating but less so.
Q31NEET 2013
6.02 × 10²⁰ molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Moles of urea = 6.02 × 10²⁰/6.02 × 10²³ = 1 × 10⁻³ mol in 100 mL = 0.1 L. Molarity = 10⁻³/0.1 = 0.01 M. 0.001 M forgets to convert 100 mL into litres.
Q32NEET 2013
Which of the following is a polar molecule ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
SF₄ has four bond pairs and one lone pair (see-saw shape), so its bond dipoles do not cancel and it is polar. BF₃ (trigonal planar), SiF₄ (tetrahedral) and XeF₄ (square planar) are symmetric, so they are non-polar.
Q33NEET 2013
In the reaction 2-bromo-4-nitrobenzenediazonium chloride —(A)→ m-bromonitrobenzene A is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Removing the diazonium group at C-1 leaves Br at C-2 and NO₂ at C-4, which are meta to each other, so the reagent must replace –N₂⁺ by H. Hypophosphorous acid (H₃PO₂) with water does this. Cu₂Cl₂ would introduce Cl and H⁺/H₂O would give a phenol.
Q34NEET 2013
The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is (I) CH₂=C(OH)–CH₂–CO–CH₃ (II) CH₃–CO–CH₂–CO–CH₃ (III) CH₃–C(OH)=CH–CO–CH₃
Not quite — the answer is B.
III is the enol of acetylacetone; its C=C is conjugated with the C=O and it forms a six-membered intramolecular hydrogen bond, so it is the most stable. The keto form II comes next, and I, whose C=C is not conjugated with the carbonyl, is least stable: III > II > I.
Q35NEET 2013 · Q75
Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Me₃SiCl has only one hydrolysable Si–Cl bond, so after hydrolysis it can bond only at one end and acts as a chain stopper. Me₂SiCl₂ forms chains, and MeSiCl₃ and PhSiCl₃ give cross-linking, building high-molecular-mass silicones.
Q36NEET 2013
Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction easily?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The –NO₂ group strongly deactivates the ring and also complexes with AlCl₃, so nitrobenzene does not undergo Friedel–Crafts reactions easily. Cumene, xylene and toluene have activating alkyl groups and react readily.
Chemistry: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 7 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
7 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2013 · Q55
The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond unit cell is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Diamond has an fcc arrangement (4 atoms per cell) with half of the 8 tetrahedral voids also occupied (4 more atoms), giving 8 carbon atoms per unit cell. 4 counts only the fcc lattice points.
Q2NEET 2013 · Q56
Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Deviation from ideal behaviour grows with intermolecular attraction. NH₃ is polar and hydrogen-bonded, so it liquefies easily and deviates most. H₂, N₂ and CH₄ have only weak dispersion forces.
Q3NEET 2013 · Q57
A metal has a fcc lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is 2.72 g cm⁻³. The molar mass of the metal is (NA = Avogadro's constant = 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is C.
M = ρa³Nₐ/Z with Z = 4 for fcc, a = 404 pm = 4.04 × 10⁻⁸ cm: a³ = 6.594 × 10⁻²³ cm³. M = 2.72 × 6.594 × 10⁻²³ × 6.02 × 10²³/4 ≈ 27.0 g mol⁻¹ (aluminium).
Q4NEET 2013 · Q58
Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs?
Not quite — the answer is C.
HCl has a permanent dipole, which induces a temporary dipole in the non-polar He atom: a dipole–induced dipole interaction. Water and alcohol have dipole–dipole (H-bond) forces, while Cl₂/CCl₄ and SiF₄/He are both non-polar, giving only dispersion forces.
Q5NEET 2013 · Q78
Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms. Identify which of the following statements is not true
Not quite — the answer is C.
Dilute boric acid and dilute hydrogen peroxide are weak (mild) antiseptics, so calling them strong is not true. The other statements are correct: 0.2% phenol is an antiseptic and 1% a disinfectant, chlorine and iodine are strong disinfectants, and disinfectants harm living tissue.
Q6NEET 2013 · Q80
Nylon is an example of-
Not quite — the answer is C.
Nylons such as nylon-6,6 are formed by condensation of a diamine with a dicarboxylic acid, producing amide (–CO–NH–) links, so nylon is a polyamide. Polyesters like terylene have ester links instead.
Q7NEET 2013 · Q86
Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Neoprene is polychloroprene, made from chloroprene (2-chlorobuta-1,3-diene), CH₂=C(Cl)–CH=CH₂. Buta-1,3-diene is the monomer of polybutadiene/Buna rubbers and isoprene is the monomer of natural rubber.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2013 Chemistry
- Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure5 Q
- The d- and f-Block Elements4 Q
- Structure of Atom3 Q
- Electrochemistry3 Q
- Hydrocarbons3 Q
- Chemical Kinetics2 Q
- Coordination Compounds2 Q
- Equilibrium2 Q
- Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques2 Q
- Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry1 Q
- Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids1 Q
- Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers1 Q
- Solutions1 Q
- Amines1 Q
NEET 2013 Biology questions
56 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2013
Select the wrong statement:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Oomycetes are oogamous: the female gamete (egg) is large and non-motile while the male gamete is small, so the statement that the female gamete is smaller and motile is reversed and wrong. The definitions of isogametes and anisogametes are correct, and Chlamydomonas does show isogamy and anisogamy while Fucus is oogamous.
Q2NEET 2013
Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in
Not quite — the answer is B.
Spirogyra shows isogamous conjugation in which the fusing gametes are similar and non-flagellated (amoeboid). Chlamydomonas has flagellated isogametes, while Volvox and Fucus are oogamous.
Q3NEET 2013
Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of
Not quite — the answer is B.
The coralloid roots of Cycas harbour cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc in a special zone. Pinus has fungal mycorrhiza instead, and Equisetum and Psilotum have no such cyanobacterial association.
Q4NEET 2013
Read the following statements (A–E) and answer the question which follows them: (A) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living (B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous (C) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous (D) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses (E) Both Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious How many of the above statements are correct?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Three statements are correct: gametophytes of liverworts, mosses and ferns are free-living; gymnosperms and some ferns (e.g. Salvinia) are heterosporous; and Fucus, Volvox and Albugo are oogamous. The sporophyte of mosses is more elaborate than that of liverworts, and Pinus is monoecious, so the other two are wrong.
Q5NEET 2013
In china rose the flowers are
Not quite — the answer is A.
China rose (Hibiscus, Malvaceae) has radially symmetrical (actinomorphic) flowers with a superior ovary (hypogynous) and twisted aestivation of petals. It is neither zygomorphic nor epigynous, and its corolla aestivation is not valvate.
Q6NEET 2013
Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is
Not quite — the answer is C.
The transition state of the substrate exists only very briefly at the top of the energy barrier and is a high-energy, unstable structure before it forms product. It is therefore both transient and unstable, not stable or permanent.
Q7NEET 2013
A phosphoglyceride is always made up of
Not quite — the answer is C.
In a phosphoglyceride (e.g. lecithin), fatty acids, which may be saturated or unsaturated, are esterified to glycerol, and the glycerol also carries a phosphate group. The fatty acid is not esterified to the phosphate, and it need not be only saturated or only unsaturated.
Q8NEET 2013
Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are
Not quite — the answer is D.
Some cyanobacteria have chromatophores, membranous extensions of the plasma membrane into the cytoplasm that contain pigments. Heterocysts are nitrogen-fixing cells and basal bodies anchor flagella, so neither is a pigment-bearing membrane.
Q9NEET 2013
A major site for synthesis of lipids is
Not quite — the answer is B.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum, which lacks ribosomes, is the major site of lipid (including steroid) synthesis. Rough ER bears ribosomes and is the site of protein synthesis.
Q10NEET 2013
The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called
Not quite — the answer is C.
During zygotene the homologous chromosomes pair (synapsis), and each synapsed pair is called a bivalent or tetrad. A kinetochore is the disc on the centromere for spindle attachment, not a chromosome pair.
Q11NEET 2013
The most abundant intracellular cation is
Not quite — the answer is D.
Potassium ion is the chief cation inside cells, while sodium ion is the chief cation of extracellular fluid. Calcium and hydrogen ions are present inside cells at far lower concentrations.
Q12NEET 2013
During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by
Not quite — the answer is D.
In germinating cereal grains, gibberellin from the embryo induces the aleurone layer to make hydrolytic enzymes such as α-amylase, which mobilise stored starch. ABA has the opposite effect and promotes dormancy.
Q13NEET 2013
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The tapetum, the innermost wall layer of the microsporangium, nourishes the developing pollen grains. The hard outer pollen layer is the exine (intine is inner), sporogenous tissue is diploid, and microspores come from the sporogenous tissue, not the endothecium.
Q14NEET 2013
Product of sexual reproduction generally generates
Not quite — the answer is C.
Sexual reproduction involves meiosis and fusion of gametes from two parents, so the offspring carry new genetic combinations that produce variation. Seed viability, dormancy or biomass are not general outcomes of sexual reproduction.
Q15NEET 2013
Meiosis takes place in
Not quite — the answer is A.
Meiosis occurs in specialised diploid cells called meiocytes (e.g. microspore and megaspore mother cells). A megaspore is itself a haploid product of meiosis, and conidia and gemmules are asexual structures.
Q16NEET 2013
Advantage of cleistogamy is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Cleistogamous flowers never open, so pollen falls directly on the stigma of the same flower and seed set is assured even without pollinators. Because this is self-pollination, it reduces rather than increases genetic variability.
Q17NEET 2013
Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of
Not quite — the answer is D.
In Chara the female sex organ, the oogonium (nucule), is borne above the male antheridium (globule) at the same node of a monoecious plant. Antheridiophores and archegoniophores belong to Marchantia, and stamens and carpels to flowering plants.
Q18NEET 2013
Perisperm differs from endosperm in
Not quite — the answer is C.
Perisperm is residual, persistent nucellus, a diploid maternal tissue, whereas endosperm is triploid, formed by fusion of a male gamete with the two polar nuclei. Perisperm does store food (e.g. black pepper), so it is not a tissue without reserves.
Q19NEET 2013
Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?
Not quite — the answer is B.
A recombination frequency of 50% is the maximum and is what unlinked genes show, so such genes behave as if assorting independently, whether on different chromosomes or far apart on one chromosome with multiple crossovers. Tightly linked genes show very low recombination, so calling them tightly linked is the untrue statement.
Q20NEET 2013
Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as
Not quite — the answer is B.
A change in allele frequency that happens by chance, not by selection, is genetic drift, and it is strongest in small populations. Gene flow is change due to migration, not chance.
Q21NEET 2013
If two persons with 'AB' blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as 'A' blood group : 'AB' blood group : 'B' blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both 'A' and 'B' type proteins in 'AB' blood group individuals. This is an example of
Not quite — the answer is A.
In AB individuals both the IA and IB alleles are fully expressed, producing both A and B proteins, which is codominance. In incomplete dominance the heterozygote would have an intermediate phenotype instead of showing both parental products.
Q22NEET 2013
The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge is called
Not quite — the answer is B.
When unrelated lineages facing similar environments evolve similar adaptations, the process is convergent evolution, which produces analogous structures. Adaptive radiation is the opposite pattern, where one ancestor gives rise to many differently adapted forms.
Q23NEET 2013
The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by
Not quite — the answer is D.
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium needs random mating, no migration, no mutation, no selection and a large population. Lack of random mating disturbs the equilibrium, whereas random mating and absence of migration or mutation help maintain it.
Q24NEET 2013
Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Bt cotton, carrying cry genes from Bacillus thuringiensis, is the Bt crop approved and grown by Indian farmers. Bt brinjal was developed but its commercial release was put under moratorium.
Q25NEET 2013
A good producer of citric acid is
Not quite — the answer is A.
The fungus Aspergillus niger is the industrial producer of citric acid. Saccharomyces is used for ethanol and baking, and Clostridium for butyric acid.
Q26NEET 2013
DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by
Not quite — the answer is C.
DNA fragments, being negatively charged, move towards the anode through an agarose gel and are separated by size in gel electrophoresis. PCR amplifies DNA and does not separate fragments.
Q27NEET 2013
Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Methylase adds methyl groups to DNA and does not break down cell walls, so pairing it with algae is the wrong match. Lysozyme breaks bacterial walls, cellulase plant walls and chitinase fungal walls.
Q28NEET 2013
Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Archaebacteria live in extreme habitats, and methanogens and other archaea are common in deep-sea sediments and hydrothermal vents. Blue-green algae need light and so are restricted to surface waters.
Q29NEET 2013
Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by
Not quite — the answer is C.
Secondary productivity is the rate at which consumers form new organic matter from the food they assimilate. Formation of organic matter by producers is primary productivity.
Q30NEET 2013
Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Shifting (slash-and-burn) cultivation clears forest and destroys biodiversity, so it is not a conservation method. Field gene banks, seed banks and botanical gardens all keep plants away from their natural habitat, which is ex situ conservation.
Q31NEET 2013
Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity?
Not quite — the answer is C.
In the global species distribution of plants, fungi form a larger share than algae, lichens, or mosses and ferns combined. Among the options, fungi therefore represent the largest number of species.
Q32NEET 2013
Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification?
Not quite — the answer is C.
House fly, butterfly, tsetse fly and silverfish all belong to class Insecta. Cuttlefish and silverfish are not fishes, centipedes, millipedes, spiders and scorpions are not insects, and the spiny anteater is a mammal, not an echinoderm.
Q33NEET 2013
Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Prawn, scorpion and Locusta all have jointed appendages and a chitinous exoskeleton, placing them in phylum Arthropoda. The other groups mix phyla, e.g. earthworm is an annelid, pinworm a nematode and tapeworm a flatworm.
Q34NEET 2013
One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Silverfish (Lepisma) is a wingless insect and hence an arthropod. Cuttlefish is a mollusc, and pufferfish and flying fish are bony fishes.
Q35NEET 2013
The Golgi complex plays a major role
Not quite — the answer is D.
The Golgi apparatus modifies proteins received from the ER and is the site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids. Trapping light belongs to chloroplasts, digestion to lysosomes and energy transfer to mitochondria.
Q36NEET 2013
Macromolecule chitin is
Not quite — the answer is A.
Chitin is a homopolymer of N-acetylglucosamine, so it is a nitrogen-containing polysaccharide. It is a complex polysaccharide with amino sugar units, not a simple one, and it has no phosphorus or sulphur.
Q37NEET 2013
The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are
Not quite — the answer is D.
Many coenzymes are derived from vitamins, e.g. NAD and NADP contain niacin and FAD contains riboflavin. Coenzymes are non-protein organic compounds, so proteins are not their components.
Q38NEET 2013
A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of
Not quite — the answer is A.
Iodine deficiency during pregnancy causes hypothyroidism in the developing baby, leading to cretinism with stunted growth, mental retardation, low IQ and abnormal skin. Low growth hormone causes dwarfism without mental retardation.
Q39NEET 2013
Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Gout is inflammation of joints caused by accumulation of uric acid crystals. Osteoporosis in old age is linked to decreased oestrogen, there are 12 thoracic vertebrae, and joints between vertebrae are cartilaginous, not fibrous.
Q40NEET 2013
The characteristic and an example of a synovial joint in humans is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Synovial joints have a fluid-filled synovial cavity between the articulating bones, and the pivot joint between atlas and axis is an example. Skull bones are joined by immovable fibrous sutures, and synovial fluid is not lymph.
Q41NEET 2013
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Hormones are defined as non-nutrient chemicals produced in trace amounts that act as intercellular messengers. The adenohypophysis is controlled by hypothalamic hormones via the portal system, not directly by nerves, and releasing hormones come from the hypothalamus, not the pituitary.
Q42NEET 2013
Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The thyroid secretes thyroxine, and lack of iodine in the diet causes goitre. Oxytocin is released by the posterior pituitary and GH by the anterior pituitary, and testosterone comes from Leydig cells, not the corpus luteum.
Q43NEET 2013
What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Spermatogonia enlarge into primary spermatocytes, which undergo meiosis to form secondary spermatocytes and then spermatids, and spermatids differentiate into spermatozoa (spermiogenesis). Spermatids come before spermatozoa, not after.
Q44NEET 2013
Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of
Not quite — the answer is A.
Without fertilisation the corpus luteum degenerates and progesterone falls, so the endometrium breaks down and is shed as menstrual flow. FSH, oxytocin and vasopressin do not maintain the endometrium.
Q45NEET 2013
Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It
Not quite — the answer is D.
Oxytocin for parturition is released from the mother's posterior pituitary, not secreted by the placenta. The placenta does supply oxygen and nutrients, removes carbon dioxide and wastes, and secretes oestrogen, progesterone and hCG.
Q46NEET 2013
Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Amniocentesis examines foetal cells in amniotic fluid to detect chromosomal abnormalities such as Down and Klinefelter syndromes and can reveal sex. Jaundice is a postnatal condition of bilirubin build-up and cannot be detected this way.
Q47NEET 2013
Artificial insemination means
Not quite — the answer is C.
In artificial insemination, semen from the husband or a healthy donor is introduced artificially into the female tract (vagina or uterus). Transferring sperm to ova in a test tube is in vitro fertilisation, and sperm are not placed into the ovary.
Q48NEET 2013
The incorrect statement with regard to haemophilia is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder in which a single clotting factor protein is affected. Calling it a dominant disease is the incorrect statement.
Q49NEET 2013
If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Two carriers (Tt × Tt) give TT : Tt : tt in a 1 : 2 : 1 ratio, so the chance of an affected (tt) child is 1/4, i.e. 25%. 50% is the chance of a carrier child.
Q50NEET 2013
Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The lac operon genes are transcribed in the order z, y, a. A nonsense mutation in lacY stops translation of permease, but β-galactosidase from lacZ, which lies upstream, is still made. Permease cannot be produced, and transacetylase downstream is lost or greatly reduced.
Q51NEET 2013
The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of
Not quite — the answer is C.
The eyes of octopus (a mollusc) and cat (a mammal) differ in structure and origin but perform the same function, so they are analogous organs, which arise by convergent evolution. Homologous organs share origin but may differ in function.
Q52NEET 2013
Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by
Not quite — the answer is A.
Ascaris eggs passed in faeces contaminate soil, water and vegetables, and infection occurs by swallowing these eggs with water or food. Undercooked pork transmits Taenia, and mosquitoes and tsetse flies transmit other parasites.
Q53NEET 2013
The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by
Not quite — the answer is A.
Cell-mediated immunity is carried out by T-lymphocytes, which act directly on infected cells and grafts. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies, giving humoral immunity.
Q54NEET 2013
During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include
Not quite — the answer is A.
In the anaerobic sludge digesters of a sewage treatment plant, bacteria produce biogas consisting of methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. Oxygen is not produced under anaerobic conditions.
Q55NEET 2013
A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is
Not quite — the answer is D.
Change in population = (natality + immigration) − (mortality + emigration) = (250 + 20) − (240 + 30) = 270 − 270 = 0. Taking only natality minus mortality gives the trap answer 10.
Q56NEET 2013
Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Fragmentation, the breaking of detritus into small particles, is carried out by detritivores such as earthworms. Humus decomposes extremely slowly, leaching carries soluble nutrients down into lower soil layers, and catabolism is enzymatic breakdown, not the last anaerobic step.
Biology: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 12 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
12 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2013
Which one of the following is not a correct statement ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
A museum keeps preserved specimens of plants and animals (dried, in jars of preservative, stuffed or as skeletons), not a collection of photographs. Herbaria hold dried pressed specimens, botanical gardens hold living plants and keys are taxonomic aids, so those statements are correct.
Q2NEET 2013
Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of
Not quite — the answer is A.
During secondary growth in a dicot stem, the medullary ray cells lying between the vascular bundles become meristematic and form the interfascicular cambium. Pericycle gives rise to cork cambium or lateral roots, not the interfascicular strip.
Q3NEET 2013
Lenticels are involved in
Not quite — the answer is B.
Lenticels are lens-shaped openings in the bark formed by loosely arranged complementary cells, which allow exchange of gases between the inner tissues and the atmosphere. Although a little water may be lost through them, their role is gaseous exchange, not mainly transpiration.
Q4NEET 2013
Age of a tree can be estimated by
Not quite — the answer is C.
Each year's spring wood and autumn wood together form one annual ring, so counting annual rings gives the age of a tree (dendrochronology). Height, girth, biomass and heartwood diameter vary with conditions and do not give age reliably.
Q5NEET 2013 · Q111
Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Facilitated transport moves molecules down their concentration gradient through special membrane proteins, so it is selective and saturable but needs no energy. Uphill transport against a gradient requires energy and is active transport.
Q6NEET 2013
Natural reservoir of phosphorus is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Phosphorus has no significant gaseous phase, and its natural reservoir is phosphate-bearing rock, which releases phosphate on weathering. Bones and fossils hold only small, secondary amounts.
Q7NEET 2013 · Q112
The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Nitrogenase in root nodules reduces atmospheric N₂ to ammonia, the first stable product of biological nitrogen fixation. Glutamate is formed later when ammonia is assimilated, and nitrite and nitrate come from nitrification, not fixation.
Q8NEET 2013
What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Cockroach nymphs resemble adults but lack wings; wing pads grow with successive moults and fully formed fore wings (tegmina) and hind wings appear after the last moult. Mouthparts and anal cerci are already present in nymphs.
Q9NEET 2013 · Q134
Kyoto Protocol was endorsed at
Not quite — the answer is A.
The Kyoto Protocol was adopted at the third Conference of the Parties (COP-3) of the UNFCCC in Kyoto in 1997. Later COPs worked out its rules but did not adopt it.
Q10NEET 2013 · Q174
In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called
Not quite — the answer is D.
The entire collection of plants or seeds carrying all the diverse alleles of all genes of a crop is called germplasm collection, the first step of plant breeding. Selection of parents and cross-hybridisation are later steps that use this collection.
Q11NEET 2013 · Q179
Global warming can be controlled by
Not quite — the answer is A.
Reducing deforestation keeps carbon dioxide absorbed by trees, and cutting fossil fuel use reduces carbon dioxide emissions, so both help control global warming. Increasing deforestation or fossil fuel use, or reducing energy efficiency, would worsen it.
Q12NEET 2013 · Q180
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act came into force in
Not quite — the answer is B.
India's Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted and came into force in 1981; it was amended in 1987 to include noise. The Water Act was 1974 and the Environment (Protection) Act 1986.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2013 Biology
- Biomolecules5 Q
- Plant Kingdom4 Q
- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants4 Q
- Principles of Inheritance and Variation4 Q
- Evolution4 Q
- Biological Classification3 Q
- Animal Kingdom3 Q
- Chemical Coordination and Integration3 Q
- Human Reproduction3 Q
- Cell: The Unit of Life2 Q
- Cell Cycle and Cell Division2 Q
- Microbes in Human Welfare2 Q
- Biotechnology: Principles and Processes2 Q
- Ecosystem2 Q
- Biodiversity and Conservation2 Q
- Locomotion and Movement2 Q
- Reproductive Health2 Q
- Human Health and Disease2 Q
- Morphology of Flowering Plants1 Q
- Plant Growth and Development1 Q
- Biotechnology and Its Applications1 Q
- Molecular Basis of Inheritance1 Q
- Organisms and Populations1 Q
About this paper
How many questions from NEET 2013 are on this page?
147 questions (Physics 36, Chemistry 43, Biology 68). Questions that need a diagram we could not reproduce, or whose wording in the source was unclear, are left out.
Are these the original questions?
Yes. The questions and options are as set in the NEET 2013 paper, conducted by CBSE. The answer to every question was checked by the RankUp team, and the explanations are RankUp's own.
Is NEET 2013 useful for NEET 2027?
Yes. The NEET syllabus is built on the same NCERT books. 20 questions here are on topics NCERT has since dropped; they are listed separately so you can skip them.
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