NEET 2016 Phase 1 Question PaperPhysics, Chemistry and Biology, with checked answers and solutions
By the RankUp team, founded by Dr. Deepak Sahu (MBBS Gold Medalist, NEET PG AIR 1731) · Updated
160 questions from the NEET 2016 Phase 1 paper, conducted by CBSE. Tap an option to check your answer and read why it is right. Each subject has a free PDF with the answer key and explanations.
- Exam
- NEET 2016 Phase 1
- Conducted by
- CBSE
- Physics
- 38 questions
- Chemistry
- 41 questions
- Biology
- 81 questions
NEET 2016 Phase 1 Physics questions
36 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q1
From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The full disc has I = MR²/2 = 16MR²/32. The removed piece has mass M/4 and radius R/2, with its centre at R/2, so by the parallel axis theorem its I = (M/4)(R/2)²/2 + (M/4)(R/2)² = 3MR²/32. Remaining I = 16MR²/32 − 3MR²/32 = 13MR²/32; forgetting the parallel-axis term gives the wrong 15MR²/32.
Q2NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q3
The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:
Not quite — the answer is A.
A diamagnetic material develops magnetisation opposite to the applied field, so its susceptibility is small and negative. Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials are magnetised along the field and have positive susceptibility.
Q3NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q6
In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a', the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of:
Not quite — the answer is D.
First minimum: a sin30° = λ, so λ/a = 1/2. The first secondary maximum lies at a sinθ ≈ 3λ/2, giving sinθ = 3/2 × 1/2 = 3/4. sin⁻¹(1/2) is the first minimum itself, not a maximum.
Q4NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q8
Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Only an accelerating charge produces time-varying electric and magnetic fields that detach and propagate as an electromagnetic wave. A stationary charge gives only a static field and a uniformly moving charge gives a steady current-like field that does not radiate.
Q5NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q9
Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d << l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as:
Not quite — the answer is C.
For small angles, equilibrium gives kq²/x² = mg·(x/2l), so q² ∝ x³ and q ∝ x^(3/2). Differentiating, dq/dt ∝ x^(1/2)·dx/dt; since dq/dt is constant, v = dx/dt ∝ x^(−1/2). The speed therefore increases as the spheres come closer, ruling out v ∝ x^(1/2) and v ∝ x.
Q6NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q10
A uniform rope of length L and mass m₁ hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m₂ is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ₁ is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ₂. The ratio λ₂/λ₁ is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Frequency stays the same, so λ ∝ v ∝ √T. Tension at the bottom is m₂g and at the top is (m₁ + m₂)g, so λ₂/λ₁ = √((m₁ + m₂)/m₂). Putting m₁ in the denominator would wrongly use the rope's own weight as the bottom tension.
Q7NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q11
A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is: (Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)
Not quite — the answer is C.
Coefficient of performance = T₂/(T₁ − T₂) = 277/26 ≈ 10.65. Heat removed per second = 600 × 4.2 = 2520 W, so power = 2520/10.65 ≈ 236.5 W. Forgetting to convert calories to joules gives about 56 W, and slips in the powers of ten give the other values.
Q8NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q12
An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
For a closed pipe resonating with a fixed fork, resonant lengths are λ/4, 3λ/4, 5λ/4, … The first is 50 cm, so the next is 3 × 50 = 150 cm. 100 cm would be the next length for a pipe open at both ends.
Q9NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q14
The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at − bt², where a and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Current i = dQ/dt = a − 2bt, which falls to zero at t = a/2b. Heat H = ∫₀^(a/2b) (a − 2bt)²R dt = R·a³/(6b). Forgetting to square the time-varying current (using an average current) gives the larger wrong values.
Q10NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q15
A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U₁, at wavelength 500 nm is U₂ and that at 1000 nm is U₃. Wien's constant, b = 2.88 × 10⁶ nmK. Which of the following is correct?
Not quite — the answer is D.
By Wien's law λmax = b/T = 2.88 × 10⁶/5760 = 500 nm, so emission peaks at 500 nm and U₂ is the largest; hence U₂ > U₁. A black body emits at all wavelengths, so neither U₁ nor U₃ is zero.
Q11NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q16
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are α₁ and α₂. Lengths of brass and steel rods are l₁ and l₂ respectively. If (l₂ − l₁) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?
Not quite — the answer is D.
For the difference to stay constant, both rods must expand by the same amount for any temperature change: l₁α₁ΔT = l₂α₂ΔT, so α₁l₁ = α₂l₂. Swapping the lengths (α₁l₂ = α₂l₁) is the common trap.
Q12NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q18
The intensity at the maximum in a Young's double slit experiment is I₀. Distance between two slits is d = 5λ, where λ is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10 d?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The point in front of a slit is at y = d/2, so path difference = yd/D = (d/2)(d)/(10d) = d/20 = λ/4, i.e. phase difference π/2. I = I₀cos²(φ/2) = I₀cos²(π/4) = I₀/2. Using I₀cos²φ instead of cos²(φ/2) would wrongly give zero.
Q13NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q19
A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s⁻². Its net acceleration in ms⁻² at the end of 2.0 s is approximately:
Not quite — the answer is A.
At t = 2 s, ω = αt = 4 rad/s. For a point on the rim, centripetal acceleration = ω²r = 16 × 0.5 = 8 m/s² and tangential acceleration = αr = 1 m/s². Net = √(64 + 1) ≈ 8.06 ≈ 8.0 m/s²; taking only the tangential part misses the dominant centripetal term.
Q14NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q20
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is: (c being velocity of light)
Not quite — the answer is A.
For the electron λe = h/√(2mE); for the photon λp = hc/E. Ratio λe/λp = E/(c√(2mE)) = (1/c)√(E/2m). The expression without 1/c is not dimensionless, so it cannot be a ratio of wavelengths.
Q15NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q21
A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?
Not quite — the answer is B.
For rolling without slipping, acceleration = g sinθ/(1 + k²/R²), independent of mass. A solid sphere has k²/R² = 2/5, smaller than the disc's 1/2, so the sphere accelerates more and reaches first. Mass does not matter because it cancels.
Q16NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q22
The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45°. The angle of prism is 60°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are:
Not quite — the answer is B.
At minimum deviation i = e, so δ = 2i − A = 90° − 60° = 30°, and r = A/2 = 30°. μ = sin45°/sin30° = √2. A refractive index of 1/√2 (less than 1) is impossible for a prism in air.
Q17NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q23
When an α-particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge 'Ze', its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as:
Not quite — the answer is A.
At closest approach all kinetic energy becomes potential energy: ½mv² = k(Ze)(2e)/r₀, so r₀ = 4kZe²/(mv²). With v fixed, r₀ ∝ 1/m: a heavier particle carries more kinetic energy and gets closer. A 1/√m or 1/m² dependence does not follow from this energy balance.
Q18NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q24
A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 × 10⁻⁴ J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?
Not quite — the answer is A.
½mv² = 8 × 10⁻⁴ J with m = 0.01 kg gives v² = 0.16 m²/s². The distance covered in two revolutions is s = 2 × 2πr = 4π × 0.064 ≈ 0.804 m. From v² = 2a_t s, a_t = 0.16/(2 × 0.804) ≈ 0.0995 ≈ 0.1 m/s²; 0.15 m/s² does not satisfy this.
Q19NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q25
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms⁻¹ at 27°C and 1.0 × 10⁵ Nm⁻² pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127°C and 0.05 × 10⁵ Nm⁻², the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in ms⁻¹ is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
v_rms = √(3RT/M) depends only on temperature, not pressure. v₂ = 200 × √(400/300) = 200 × 2/√3 = 400/√3 m/s. Scaling with pressure is the trap that leads to the smaller values.
Q20NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q26
A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B', at radial distances a/2 and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Inside the wire B = μ₀Ir/(2πa²), so at a/2, B = μ₀I/(4πa). Outside B' = μ₀I/(2πr), so at 2a, B' = μ₀I/(4πa). The ratio is 1. Treating the inside point as if all the current were enclosed (using 1/r there) would wrongly give a ratio of 4.
Q21NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q27
A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r⃗ = cos ωt x̂ + sin ωt ŷ, where ω is a constant. Which of the following is true?
Not quite — the answer is C.
This is uniform circular motion of unit radius. v⃗ = ω(−sin ωt x̂ + cos ωt ŷ), and v⃗·r⃗ = 0, so velocity is perpendicular to r⃗. a⃗ = −ω²r⃗, so acceleration points towards the origin, not away from it.
Q22NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q28
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?
Not quite — the answer is D.
At the top, the minimum speed is √(gR) (tension or normal force zero). Energy conservation from bottom to top: v² = gR + 2g(2R) = 5gR, so v = √(5gR). √(gR) is the minimum speed at the top, not at entry.
Q23NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q29
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
hc/λ − φ = eV and hc/2λ − φ = eV/4. Subtracting: hc/2λ = 3eV/4, so eV = 2hc/3λ, and φ = hc/λ − 2hc/3λ = hc/3λ. Threshold wavelength = hc/φ = 3λ.
Q24NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q30
A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:
Not quite — the answer is B.
On a P–V diagram the adiabatic curve is steeper, so during adiabatic compression the pressure rises faster and the area under the curve (work done on the gas) is larger for the same volume change. This holds for any γ > 1, so it does not depend on atomicity.
Q25NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q32
A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Objective: 1/v − 1/(−200) = 1/40 gives v = 50 cm. For normal adjustment the image must be at the focus of the eyepiece, so separation = 50 + 4 = 54 cm. 44 cm (fo + fe) applies only to an object at infinity, and 50 cm ignores the eyepiece.
Q26NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q33
Two non-mixing liquids of densities ρ and nρ (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Length pL is in the denser liquid and (1 − p)L in the lighter one. Weight = buoyancy: dLAg = nρ(pL)Ag + ρ(1 − p)LAg, so d = ρ[1 + (n − 1)p]. Using (n + 1) comes from adding instead of subtracting the lighter-liquid share.
Q27NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q35
A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is: [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 10⁵ J/kg and g = 10 N/kg]
Not quite — the answer is C.
(1/4)mgh = mL, so h = 4L/g = 4 × 3.4 × 10⁵/10 = 1.36 × 10⁵ m = 136 km. Ignoring the one-quarter factor gives 34 km.
Q28NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q36
The ratio of escape velocity at earth (vₑ) to the escape velocity at a planet (vₚ) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
vₑ = √(2GM/R) and M = (4/3)πR³ρ, so v ∝ R√ρ. For the planet v ∝ 2R × √(2ρ) = 2√2 times earth's value. Hence vₑ:vₚ = 1:2√2; ignoring the density change gives 1:2.
Q29NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q37
If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
|A + B|² = |A − B|² gives A² + B² + 2AB cosθ = A² + B² − 2AB cosθ, so cosθ = 0 and θ = 90°. At 0° the sum would exceed the difference, and at 180° the difference would exceed the sum.
Q30NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q38
Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10⁷ m⁻¹, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The last (series-limit) line of Balmer corresponds to n = ∞ → 2: wave number = R(1/2² − 0) = 10⁷/4 = 0.25 × 10⁷ m⁻¹. The first Balmer line would use 1/4 − 1/9 instead.
Q31NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q39
A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F⃗ = (2t î + 3t² ĵ) N, where î and ĵ are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?
Not quite — the answer is D.
With m = 1 kg, a⃗ = F⃗, and starting from rest v⃗ = ∫a⃗ dt = t² î + t³ ĵ. Power P = F⃗·v⃗ = 2t·t² + 3t²·t³ = 2t³ + 3t⁵ W. Multiplying force by time instead of integrating gives the wrong powers of t.
Q32NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q41
If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt², where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1s and 2s is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Distance = ∫₁² (At + Bt²) dt = A(2² − 1²)/2 + B(2³ − 1³)/3 = (3/2)A + (7/3)B (the velocity does not change sign for positive A, B). A/2 + B/3 is the result of integrating from 0 to 1 instead.
Q33NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q42
A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10⁻³ Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Total flux linkage NΦ = LI, so L = NΦ/I = 1000 × 4 × 10⁻³/4 = 1 H. Forgetting to divide by the current gives 4 H.
Q34NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q43
A small signal voltage V(t) = V₀ sin ωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C:
Not quite — the answer is B.
In an ideal capacitor the current leads the voltage by 90°, so the power factor cos90° = 0 and the average power over a full cycle is zero: energy stored in one quarter-cycle is returned in the next. Current lagging by 90° describes an ideal inductor, not a capacitor.
Q35NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q44
Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror] Column 1: (A) m = −2, (B) m = −1/2, (C) m = +2, (D) m = +1/2 Column 2: (a) Convex mirror, (b) Concave mirror, (c) Real image, (d) Virtual image
Not quite — the answer is A.
A negative magnification means an inverted real image, which only a concave mirror forms, so m = −2 and m = −1/2 are both concave mirror with real image. m = +2 is an enlarged erect virtual image, possible only with a concave mirror, while m = +1/2 is a diminished erect virtual image, typical of a convex mirror. The matching that pairs a convex mirror with a real image is impossible.
Q36NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q45
A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is μₛ. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
With friction acting down the incline at the maximum speed, resolving forces gives v²/(Rg) = (sinθ + μₛcosθ)/(cosθ − μₛsinθ) = (μₛ + tanθ)/(1 − μₛtanθ). So v_max = √(gR(μₛ + tanθ)/(1 − μₛtanθ)); only this form has units of velocity.
Physics: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 2 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
2 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q4
A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of 15 ms⁻¹. Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is: (Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is C.
The source approaches the cliff, so the cliff receives f = 800 × 330/(330 − 15) = 800 × 330/315 ≈ 838 Hz. The stationary cliff reflects this frequency unchanged to the stationary observer, so the echo is heard at 838 Hz. 765 Hz is the frequency of the direct sound from the receding source, not the echo.
Q2NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q31
A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf's is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
(E₁ + E₂)/(E₁ − E₂) = 50/10 = 5, so E₁ + E₂ = 5E₁ − 5E₂, giving 4E₁ = 6E₂ and E₁:E₂ = 3:2. 5:1 is just the ratio of balancing lengths, not of the emfs.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2016 Phase 1 Physics
- System of Particles and Rotational Motion3 Q
- Thermal Properties of Matter3 Q
- Ray Optics and Optical Instruments3 Q
- Motion in a Plane3 Q
- Wave Optics2 Q
- Waves2 Q
- Thermodynamics2 Q
- Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter2 Q
- Atoms2 Q
- Work, Energy and Power2 Q
- Magnetism and Matter1 Q
- Electromagnetic Waves1 Q
- Electric Charges and Fields1 Q
- Current Electricity1 Q
- Kinetic Theory1 Q
- Moving Charges and Magnetism1 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Fluids1 Q
- Gravitation1 Q
- Motion in a Straight Line1 Q
- Electromagnetic Induction1 Q
- Alternating Current1 Q
- Laws of Motion1 Q
NEET 2016 Phase 1 Chemistry questions
32 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q46
Consider the molecules CH₄, NH₃ and H₂O. Which of the given statements is false?
Not quite — the answer is B.
All three are sp³ hybridised, with bond angles CH₄ 109.5° > NH₃ 107° > H₂O 104.5°, because lone pairs repel bonding pairs more strongly. So the claim that water's angle exceeds methane's is false; all three angles are still above 90°.
Q2NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q47
In the reaction H–C≡CH --(1) NaNH₂/liq. NH₃, (2) CH₃CH₂Br--> X --(1) NaNH₂/liq. NH₃, (2) CH₃CH₂Br--> Y X and Y are:
Not quite — the answer is A.
NaNH₂ removes the acidic terminal H of ethyne, and the acetylide is ethylated: HC≡C–CH₂CH₃ (1-butyne). Repeating on the remaining terminal H puts a second ethyl group on the other carbon: CH₃CH₂C≡CCH₂CH₃, 3-hexyne. 2-Butyne cannot form because the new group always attaches to the former terminal carbon.
Q3NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q48
Among the following, the correct order of acidity is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Acidity of chlorine oxoacids rises with the oxidation state of Cl (+1, +3, +5, +7): more oxygen atoms delocalise the negative charge of the conjugate base and stabilise it. Hence HClO < HClO₂ < HClO₃ < HClO₄, with perchloric acid the strongest.
Q4NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q49
The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol l⁻¹ s⁻¹ at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol l⁻¹ s⁻¹ at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
For first order, rate ∝ concentration, so 0.04/0.03 = e^(k×10) and k = ln(4/3)/10 = 0.2877/10 ≈ 0.0288 s⁻¹. t½ = 0.693/0.0288 ≈ 24.1 s. Using the 20 s mark as the time interval instead of the 10 s gap gives a much smaller k and longer half-lives.
Q5NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q54
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
An α-hydrogen can shift to the carbonyl oxygen, giving an enol that is in rapid equilibrium with the keto form; this proton-shift isomerism is keto-enol tautomerism. Carbonylation means introducing a CO group, which is a different reaction altogether.
Q6NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q55
MY and NY₃, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 × 10⁻¹³ at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard to MY and NY₃?
Not quite — the answer is B.
For MY, Ksp = s² so s = √(6.2 × 10⁻¹³) ≈ 7.9 × 10⁻⁷ M. For NY₃, Ksp = 27s⁴, so s = (6.2 × 10⁻¹³/27)^(1/4) ≈ 3.9 × 10⁻⁴ M, which is larger. Equal Ksp does not mean equal solubility when the formulas differ, and adding KY lowers both solubilities by the common ion effect.
Q7NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q56
In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Amino acids join through the –CO–NH– amide linkage formed between the carboxyl group of one and the amino group of the next; this is the peptide bond. Glycosidic bonds link monosaccharides in carbohydrates, not amino acids.
Q8NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q59
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO₂ is passed through acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ solution?
Not quite — the answer is D.
SO₂ acts as a reducing agent: it is oxidised to sulphate while orange dichromate (Cr +6) is reduced to Cr³⁺, giving green Cr₂(SO₄)₃. The solution turns green rather than colourless, and SO₂ is oxidised, not reduced.
Q9NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q60
The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No. 63), Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Eu (63) has a half-filled 4f⁷ shell: [Xe]4f⁷6s². In Gd (64) the extra electron goes to 5d to keep the stable 4f⁷: [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s². Tb (65) has [Xe]4f⁹6s². Writing Gd as 4f⁸6s² ignores the extra stability of the half-filled f subshell.
Q10NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q61
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Electrons in the same orbital share n, l and m; by the Pauli exclusion principle they must differ in spin quantum number (+½ and −½). The other three quantum numbers define the orbital itself and are therefore identical.
Q11NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q62
When copper is heated with conc. HNO₃ it produces:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Cu + 4HNO₃(conc.) → Cu(NO₃)₂ + 2NO₂ + 2H₂O. Concentrated nitric acid is reduced only to NO₂; NO is the product with dilute nitric acid.
Q12NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q63
Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1,2-diol from the trans-isomer?
Not quite — the answer is A.
In the cis-1,2-diol both OH groups are on the same face of the ring, so acetone can bridge them to form a five-membered cyclic ketal (acetonide); the trans-diol cannot reach both groups. Ozone acts on C=C bonds, which neither diol has.
Q13NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q64
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
ΔG = ΔH − TΔS. With ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0, both terms make ΔG negative at every temperature. If ΔS < 0, the −TΔS term becomes positive and the reaction stops being spontaneous at high temperature.
Q14NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q66
Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Bond enthalpy generally falls down the group (Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂), but F₂ is anomalously weak because lone pairs on the two small fluorine atoms repel each other strongly. The actual order is Cl₂ (242) > Br₂ (192) > F₂ (158) > I₂ (151 kJ/mol), so the simple F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ trend is wrong.
Q15NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q69
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H₂SO₄ and HNO₃. If a large amount of KHSO₄ is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be:
Not quite — the answer is B.
The electrophile NO₂⁺ forms when H₂SO₄ protonates HNO₃: HNO₃ + 2H₂SO₄ ⇌ NO₂⁺ + H₃O⁺ + 2HSO₄⁻. Adding a lot of HSO₄⁻ (from KHSO₄) suppresses the ionisation of H₂SO₄ by the common ion effect, so less NO₂⁺ forms and nitration slows down.
Q16NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q70
Predict the correct order among the following:
Not quite — the answer is A.
According to VSEPR theory, lone pairs are held only by one nucleus and spread out more, so they repel most strongly. The repulsion order is lone pair–lone pair > lone pair–bond pair > bond pair–bond pair, which is why lone pairs compress bond angles in NH₃ and H₂O.
Q17NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q72
Consider the following liquid - vapour equilibrium. Liquid ⇌ Vapour Which of the following relations is correct?
Not quite — the answer is D.
For liquid ⇌ vapour, the vapour pressure P plays the role of the equilibrium constant, and the van't Hoff (Clausius–Clapeyron) equation gives d lnP/dT = ΔHᵥ/RT². The sign is positive because vapour pressure rises with temperature for an endothermic vaporisation, and the derivative is with respect to T, not T².
Q18NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q73
Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option. Column I: (a) XeF₆, (b) XeO₃, (c) XeOF₄, (d) XeF₄ Column II: (i) distorted octahedral, (ii) square planar, (iii) pyramidal, (iv) square pyramidal
Not quite — the answer is A.
XeF₆ (sp³d³, 6 bond pairs + 1 lone pair) is distorted octahedral; XeO₃ (sp³, 3 bond pairs + 1 lone pair) is pyramidal; XeOF₄ (sp³d², 5 bond pairs + 1 lone pair) is square pyramidal; XeF₄ (sp³d², 4 bond pairs + 2 lone pairs) is square planar. A square planar XeO₃ is impossible because its lone pair makes it pyramidal.
Q19NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q74
Which of the following has longest C–O bond length? (Free C–O bond length in CO is 1.128 Å.)
Not quite — the answer is C.
These carbonyls are isoelectronic, but the more negative the metal centre, the more electron density it back-donates into the π* orbitals of CO, weakening and lengthening the C–O bond. [Fe(CO)₄]²⁻ carries the highest negative charge, so it has the longest C–O bond, while the cationic [Mn(CO)₆]⁺ has the shortest.
Q20NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q75
The pressure of H₂ required to make the potential of H₂-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
For 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂, E = 0 − (0.059/2) log(p_H₂/[H⁺]²). In pure water [H⁺] = 10⁻⁷ M, so E = 0 requires p_H₂ = [H⁺]² = 10⁻¹⁴ atm. Using [H⁺] instead of [H⁺]² would give 10⁻⁷ atm, which is not even offered.
Q21NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q76
The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
Not quite — the answer is D.
A catalyst provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy, which speeds up the reaction. Entropy, internal energy and enthalpy are state functions that depend only on the initial and final states, so a catalyst cannot change them.
Q22NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q78
Which is the correct statement for the given acids?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Phosphinic (hypophosphorous) acid H₃PO₂ has one P–OH and two P–H bonds, so it is monoprotic; phosphonic (phosphorous) acid H₃PO₃ has two P–OH and one P–H, so it is diprotic. Hydrogens bonded directly to phosphorus are not ionisable, which is why neither is triprotic.
Q23NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q80
Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25°C. (Given, Vapour Pressure Data at 25°C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)
Not quite — the answer is A.
For the 1:1 mixture, partial pressures are 0.5 × 12.8 = 6.4 kPa (benzene) and 0.5 × 3.85 ≈ 1.93 kPa (toluene), so benzene's mole fraction in the vapour is 6.4/8.33 ≈ 0.77. The more volatile component is enriched in the vapour; equal liquid amounts do not give equal vapour amounts.
Q24NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q81
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
In the staggered form the C–H bonds on adjacent carbons are as far apart as possible, so there is minimum repulsion and no torsional strain, making it the more stable conformation. The eclipsed form has the bonds aligned, which creates torsional strain and makes it less stable.
Q25NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q82
The reaction Cyclopentanol (C₅H₉–OH) --NaH--> C₅H₉–O⁻ Na⁺ --Me–I--> C₅H₉–O–Me can be classified as:
Not quite — the answer is A.
NaH converts cyclopentanol into its sodium alkoxide, which then displaces iodide from methyl iodide by an SN2 reaction to give methoxycyclopentane, an ether. Forming an ether from an alkoxide and an alkyl halide is the Williamson ether synthesis; no alcohol is formed and no water is eliminated.
Q26NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q83
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
A primary amine adds to the carbonyl group and then loses water to form an imine, R–CH=N–R', known as a Schiff base. The reaction is a condensation, not an oxidation, so no acid or ketone is formed.
Q27NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q85
For the following reactions: (a) CH₃CH₂CH₂Br + KOH → CH₃CH=CH₂ + KBr + H₂O (b) (CH₃)₂CHBr + KOH → (CH₃)₂CHOH + KBr (c) Cyclohexene + Br₂ → 1,2-dibromocyclohexane Which of the following statements is correct?
Not quite — the answer is B.
In (a) HBr is removed to form an alkene (elimination); in (b) –OH replaces –Br on the same carbon (substitution); in (c) Br₂ adds across the C=C double bond (addition). Calling the second reaction an elimination is wrong because no double bond is formed.
Q28NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q86
At 100°C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If K_b = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Relative lowering: (760 − 732)/732 = n₂/n₁ (Raoult's law form), with n₁ = 100/18 = 5.56 mol, so n₂ ≈ 0.0383 × 5.56 ≈ 0.213 mol. Molality = 0.213/0.1 ≈ 2.13 m and ΔTb = 0.52 × 2.13 ≈ 1.1 K, so the boiling point is about 101°C. 100°C would ignore the elevation altogether.
Q29NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q87
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
RNA contains β-D-ribose, while DNA contains β-D-2-deoxyribose, which lacks the oxygen at C-2'. Arabinose is not a nucleic acid sugar.
Q30NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q88
The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In aniline the nitrogen lone pair is delocalised into the benzene ring by resonance, so it is less available to accept a proton; arylamines are therefore weaker bases than alkylamines, whose alkyl groups push electron density onto nitrogen. The nitrogen in arylamines is not sp-hybridised.
Q31NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q89
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
Not quite — the answer is D.
In sucrose the glycosidic link joins C1 of glucose to C2 of fructose, so both anomeric carbons are tied up and there is no free hemiacetal group to reduce Tollens' or Fehling's reagent. Maltose and lactose keep one free anomeric carbon, and glucose is a free aldose, so all three are reducing sugars.
Q32NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q90
The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH₃C≡C⁻, is present in which of the following orbitals?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The negatively charged carbon is triple-bonded, so it is sp hybridised; its lone pair occupies the remaining sp orbital, pointing away from the triple bond. The two unhybridised 2p orbitals are used for the π bonds, so the lone pair is not in a p orbital.
Chemistry: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 9 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
9 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q50
Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Adsorption is spontaneous (ΔG < 0). Adsorbate molecules lose freedom when held on the surface, so ΔS < 0, and the process can be spontaneous only if it is exothermic (ΔH < 0). A positive ΔS is the common trap.
Q2NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q52
Which of the following statements is false?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Ca²⁺ ions are essential for muscle contraction and for maintaining the regular beating of the heart, so the statement denying this is false. Mg²⁺ does bind ATP in phosphate-transfer enzymes, Ca²⁺ is needed for blood clotting, and Mg²⁺ is the central ion of chlorophyll in green parts.
Q3NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q57
Natural rubber has:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Natural rubber is cis-1,4-polyisoprene, in which every double bond has the cis configuration; this gives the coiled, elastic chains. The all-trans polymer is gutta-percha, which is hard and non-elastic.
Q4NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q58
Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code: Column I: (a) Cyanide process, (b) Froth floatation process, (c) Electrolytic reduction, (d) Zone refining Column II: (i) Ultrapure Ge, (ii) Dressing of ZnS, (iii) Extraction of Al, (iv) Extraction of Au, (v) Purification of Ni
Not quite — the answer is A.
Gold is leached with cyanide, sulphide ores such as ZnS are concentrated by froth floatation, aluminium is obtained by electrolytic reduction of alumina, and zone refining gives ultrapure semiconductors such as germanium. Nickel is purified by the Mond (carbonyl) process, not zone refining.
Q5NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q65
Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m⁻³ and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol⁻¹. Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (N_A = 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is B.
For bcc, Z = 2. a³ = ZM/(ρN_A) = (2 × 6.94 × 10⁻³)/(530 × 6.02 × 10²³) ≈ 4.35 × 10⁻²⁹ m³, so a ≈ 3.52 × 10⁻¹⁰ m = 352 pm. Using Z = 1 gives about 279 pm, and forgetting to convert g to kg throws the answer off by a factor of 10.
Q6NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q67
Which of the following is an analgesic?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Novalgin is a non-narcotic analgesic used to relieve pain. Penicillin, streptomycin and chloromycetin are antibiotics that act against bacteria and do not relieve pain.
Q7NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q68
Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape?
Not quite — the answer is A.
By Graham's law rate ∝ 1/√M, so r(H₂)/r(O₂) = √(32/2) = 4. In the time half the hydrogen escapes, oxygen escapes one-quarter as much, i.e. ½ × ¼ = 1/8 of its amount. 1/4 is the rate ratio itself, not the fraction escaped.
Q8NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q77
The ionic radii of A⁺ and B⁻ ions are 0.98 × 10⁻¹⁰ m and 1.81 × 10⁻¹⁰ m. The coordination number of each ion in AB is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Radius ratio r⁺/r⁻ = 0.98/1.81 ≈ 0.54, which lies in the range 0.414–0.732 for octahedral holes, so each ion has coordination number 6 (NaCl type). A coordination number of 8 needs a ratio above 0.732.
Q9NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q79
Fog is a colloidal solution of:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Fog consists of tiny water droplets dispersed in air, so the dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a gas (an aerosol of liquid). Solid in gas describes smoke, and gas in liquid describes foam.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2016 Phase 1 Chemistry
- Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure3 Q
- Hydrocarbons3 Q
- Biomolecules3 Q
- Chemical Kinetics2 Q
- Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids2 Q
- Equilibrium2 Q
- The d- and f-Block Elements2 Q
- Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers2 Q
- Solutions2 Q
- Structure of Atom1 Q
- Thermodynamics1 Q
- Coordination Compounds1 Q
- Electrochemistry1 Q
- Haloalkanes and Haloarenes1 Q
- Amines1 Q
- Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques1 Q
NEET 2016 Phase 1 Biology questions
75 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q91
Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Gause's principle says two closely related species competing for the same limiting resource cannot coexist indefinitely in the same niche; the competitively inferior one is eventually eliminated. It is not about abundance or body size, and species with different food preferences do not compete for the same resource at all.
Q2NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q93
The coconut water from tender coconut represents:
Not quite — the answer is D.
In coconut the primary endosperm nucleus divides repeatedly without wall formation, so the watery liquid of a tender coconut is free-nuclear endosperm; the surrounding white kernel is the later cellular endosperm. The endocarp is the hard shell and the mesocarp is the fibrous husk.
Q3NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q94
Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Viroids are naked, infectious RNA molecules without a protein coat and are smaller than viruses (e.g. potato spindle tuber viroid). Their RNA is of low molecular weight, so the statement about high molecular weight RNA is the wrong one.
Q4NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q95
Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum - Arthropoda?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Parapodia are lateral locomotory appendages of aquatic annelids such as Nereis, not of arthropods. Arthropods have a chitinous exoskeleton, segmented bodies and jointed appendages.
Q5NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q96
Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Haemophilia is caused by a recessive allele on the X chromosome, so it is a sex-linked (X-linked) recessive disorder, seen mostly in males. 'Recessive gene disorder' is true but less precise; it is not a chromosomal or dominant disorder.
Q6NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q97
Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Emerson found that the rate of photosynthesis falls in light beyond 680 nm (red drop) but rises above the sum of separate rates when shorter-wavelength light is given together with it (enhancement effect). This showed that two photosystems (PS I and PS II) work together.
Q7NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q99
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged and the respiratory surface is reduced; cigarette smoking is its major cause. Asthma is an allergic inflammation of bronchi, and acidosis/alkalosis are acid-base disturbances, not respiratory diseases caused by smoking.
Q8NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q101
Mitochondria and chloroplast are: (a) semi-autonomous organelles. (b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery. Which one of the following options is correct?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous: they arise by division of pre-existing organelles and have their own circular DNA. They also have their own 70S ribosomes, so they do possess protein-synthesising machinery, which makes the second statement false.
Q9NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q103
In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in:
Not quite — the answer is B.
During the light reaction, water splitting on the inner side of the thylakoid membrane and proton pumping by the cytochrome b6f complex accumulate H⁺ in the thylakoid lumen. This gradient drives ATP synthase; the stroma becomes relatively proton-poor (alkaline).
Q10NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q104
Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Rhodopsin, the photopigment of rods (and the cone pigments), consists of the protein opsin bound to retinal, an aldehyde of vitamin A. Retinol is vitamin A alcohol, not the bound chromophore, and transducin is a G-protein in the signalling cascade.
Q11NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q105
Spindle fibres attach on to:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores, the disc-shaped protein structures that form on the centromere of each chromatid. The centromere is the constriction carrying the kinetochore; a kinetosome is a basal body of cilia, and telomeres are chromosome ends.
Q12NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q106
Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The Gangetic river dolphin (Platanista gangetica) was declared India's National Aquatic Animal in 2009 to promote its conservation. The other animals have no such status.
Q13NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q107
Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Lactose (strictly its isomer allolactose) binds the lac repressor and inactivates it, so the structural genes are transcribed. Glucose actually represses the operon and galactose is not the inducer.
Q14NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q108
Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Parathormone raises and calcitonin lowers blood calcium; insulin lowers and glucagon raises blood glucose; aldosterone retains Na⁺ and water while ANF promotes their loss. Relaxin (softens pelvic ligaments at parturition) and inhibin (suppresses FSH) act on unrelated targets, so they are not antagonistic.
Q15NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q109
Microtubules are the constituents of:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Microtubules (tubulin polymers) form the spindle fibres, the triplet fibrils of centrioles and the 9+2 axoneme of cilia. Peroxisomes are membrane-bound vesicles, and chromatin and nucleosomes are made of DNA and histones, not microtubules.
Q16NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q110
A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Several ribosomes translating the same mRNA at the same time form a polysome (polyribosome). A polypeptide is the product of translation, and Okazaki fragments are short DNA pieces of the lagging strand.
Q17NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q111
Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Fertilisation occurs in the ampullary region near the ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube, so the ovum and sperms must reach that site at the same time. The cervix has no ampullary-isthmic junction, and the ovum is not released into the uterus.
Q18NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q112
Asthma may be attributed to:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Asthma is an allergic response: allergens trigger mast cells to release histamine and other mediators, causing inflammation and spasm of bronchi and bronchioles and wheezing. It is not a bacterial infection (as in pneumonia) or fluid accumulation.
Q19NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q113
The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:
Not quite — the answer is C.
In the Avena curvature test, an agar block containing auxin placed on one side of a decapitated oat coleoptile causes bending proportional to auxin concentration, so it is the bioassay for IAA. Gibberellins are assayed by dwarf pea/maize or barley endosperm tests instead.
Q20NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q114
The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called:
Not quite — the answer is C.
In papilionaceous (vexillary) aestivation the large posterior standard petal is the vexillum, the two lateral ones are wings (alae) and the two anterior fused ones form the keel (carina). Pappus is a modified calyx of Asteraceae.
Q21NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q115
Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Liliaceae have a tricarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary with axile placentation. Solanaceae is bicarpellary syncarpous, Fabaceae is monocarpellary, and Poaceae has a monocarpellary-appearing ovary.
Q22NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q116
One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Most fungal cell walls are made of chitin and polysaccharides. Peptidoglycan is the bacterial wall component and cellulose/hemicellulose are typical of plant walls.
Q23NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q117
Select the incorrect statement:
Not quite — the answer is C.
During the follicular phase LH and FSH levels rise gradually, and LH reaches a peak (LH surge) in mid-cycle that triggers ovulation. So saying they decrease in this phase is incorrect; the other statements describe normal gonadotropin actions.
Q24NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q119
A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F₁ plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of:
Not quite — the answer is A.
TT × tt gives Tt in F₁; selfing Tt gives TT : Tt : tt in a 1 : 2 : 1 ratio, i.e. tall homozygous : tall heterozygous : dwarf. 3 : 1 tall : dwarf is the phenotypic ratio, not the genotypic one asked for.
Q25NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q120
Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Of the 'evil quartet', habitat loss and fragmentation is the most important cause of species extinction, as seen with tropical rainforest clearing. Over-exploitation, alien species and co-extinctions also contribute but to a lesser extent.
Q26NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q121
Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?
Not quite — the answer is B.
A cropland is a man-made ecosystem usually dominated by a single crop variety (monoculture), so its genetic diversity is very low. Soil organisms and weeds are present, and succession is prevented by repeated cultivation.
Q27NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q122
Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:
Not quite — the answer is A.
The ovarian steroids estrogen and progesterone feed back on the hypothalamus and modulate GnRH pulse frequency (estrogen increases it, progesterone slows it). Inhibin acts mainly on the pituitary to suppress FSH, not on GnRH pulse frequency.
Q28NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q123
Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Plasmids are extrachromosomal, circular, double-stranded DNA molecules that replicate independently of the chromosome and can be transferred between cells. They are not single-stranded.
Q29NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q124
Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Cockroach is a protostome arthropod: its embryos show determinate cleavage, and its coelom is schizocoelic in origin. Indeterminate radial cleavage is a deuterostome feature (echinoderms, chordates). Its exoskeleton is chitin, a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine, and the body is segmented.
Q30NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q125
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to:
Not quite — the answer is C.
When the immune system fails to recognise self and destroys the body's own cells, the result is an autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis. Allergy is an exaggerated response to harmless foreign antigens, and graft rejection is a response to non-self tissue.
Q31NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q126
Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column II and choose the correct option: Column I: (a) Dominance (b) Codominance (c) Pleiotropy (d) Polygenic inheritance Column II: (i) Many genes govern a single character (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully (iv) A single gene influences many characters
Not quite — the answer is B.
Dominance means only one allele is expressed in the heterozygote; codominance means both alleles are fully expressed (e.g. ABO blood group); pleiotropy is one gene affecting several traits (e.g. phenylketonuria); polygenic inheritance is many genes controlling one trait (e.g. skin colour).
Q32NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q128
Pick out the correct statements: (a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease. (b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy. (c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder. (d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X - linked recessive gene disorder.
Not quite — the answer is D.
Haemophilia is X-linked recessive, Down's syndrome results from trisomy 21 (aneuploidy) and phenylketonuria is autosomal recessive. Sickle-cell anaemia is autosomal recessive (HbS gene on chromosome 11), not X-linked, so every combination containing it is wrong.
Q33NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q130
Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the:
Not quite — the answer is D.
The filament's proximal (basal) end is attached to the thalamus, or to the petal in epipetalous flowers, while its distal end bears the anther. The connective joins the two anther lobes and the placenta bears ovules.
Q34NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q131
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Vasectomy cuts and ties the vasa deferentia, blocking sperm transport; spermatogenesis in the testes continues normally. The other pairs correctly state how barriers, IUDs and hormonal pills work.
Q35NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q132
The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Taq polymerase is a heat-stable DNA polymerase isolated from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus, which lets it survive the high denaturation temperature in PCR. The other bacteria are not its source.
Q36NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q133
Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin':
Not quite — the answer is B.
Inhibin is a glycoprotein secreted by granulosa cells of ovarian follicles (and Sertoli cells in testes) that selectively inhibits FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary. It does not suppress LH or prolactin.
Q37NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q134
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Meloidogyne incognita is a root-knot nematode that infects tobacco roots and reduces yield; RNA interference was used to make nematode-resistant tobacco. It does not attack flowers, leaves or stems.
Q38NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q135
Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Oral polio vaccine contains live attenuated (weakened) poliovirus that induces active immunity. Antivenom and gamma globulin provide passive immunity through ready-made antibodies.
Q39NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q136
Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Lysosomes are single-membrane vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes. Mitochondria, chloroplasts and the nucleus (nuclear envelope) are all bounded by a double membrane.
Q40NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q137
Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:
Not quite — the answer is C.
When stimuli come so rapidly that the muscle cannot relax between them, the twitches fuse into a smooth sustained contraction called tetanus. Fatigue is reduced response after repeated contraction and tonus is the mild resting contraction of muscle.
Q41NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q138
Which of the following is not a stem modification?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The pitcher of Nepenthes is a modified leaf (lamina) used to trap insects. Thorns of Citrus, tendrils of cucumber and the flattened phylloclade of Opuntia are all stem modifications.
Q42NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q139
Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Anthocyanins are water-soluble flavonoid pigments dissolved in the vacuolar cell sap, giving red, purple and blue colours. Chlorophylls, carotenoids and xanthophylls are fat-soluble pigments located in plastids.
Q43NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q140
Select the correct statement:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Sequoia (giant redwood), a gymnosperm, is one of the tallest trees. Gymnosperms are all heterosporous, Salvinia is a pteridophyte, and gymnosperm needles with thick cuticle and sunken stomata are well adapted to extreme climates.
Q44NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q141
Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
Not quite — the answer is B.
DNA fingerprinting uses restriction digestion, PCR amplification and hybridisation with labelled VNTR probes (Southern blotting). Zinc finger analysis is not a part of any fingerprinting technique; zinc fingers are DNA-binding protein motifs.
Q45NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q142
Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Smooth (visceral) muscle forms the walls of the intestine and other hollow organs. Tendons are dense regular connective tissue, the tip of the nose has cartilage, and the stomach is lined by columnar epithelium.
Q46NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q143
A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?
Not quite — the answer is B.
C₄ plants concentrate CO₂ around RuBisCO in bundle-sheath cells, which suppresses photorespiration, gives high photosynthetic rates at high temperature and needs less water and nitrogen (less RuBisCO) per unit carbon fixed. C₃ plants suffer photorespiration; CAM plants save water but have low photosynthetic rates.
Q47NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q144
Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The bird's wing is a modified forelimb, and the whale's flipper is also a forelimb with the same basic bone plan (humerus, radius-ulna, carpals, digits), so they are homologous. The moth's wing is only analogous, a shark's dorsal fin is not a limb, and a hind limb is not the corresponding forelimb.
Q48NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q145
Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
Not quite — the answer is A.
All Chondrichthyes (sharks, rays) have a cartilaginous endoskeleton. Not all mammals are viviparous (monotremes lay eggs), jawless chordates such as cyclostomes lack jaws, and crocodiles have a four-chambered heart.
Q49NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q146
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Cancer cells typically reactivate telomerase so their telomeres are maintained and they divide indefinitely; mutations do not inhibit telomerase production. Activated proto-oncogenes, loss of telomerase inhibition and loss of cell-cycle control all favour cancer.
Q50NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q147
The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Tryptophan is converted to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine), which in the pineal gland is converted to melatonin. Thyroid hormones come from tyrosine, while estrogen, progesterone, cortisol and cortisone are steroids derived from cholesterol.
Q51NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q148
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life: (a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes. (b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The first life forms arose in an oxygen-free atmosphere, so they were non-green anaerobic heterotrophs. The earliest autotrophs were chemoautotrophs that obtained energy from inorganic chemical reactions and did not release oxygen; oxygen-releasing photosynthesis came later with cyanobacteria-like organisms.
Q52NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q149
Reduction in pH of blood will:
Not quite — the answer is C.
A fall in pH (higher H⁺) shifts the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right (Bohr effect), lowering haemoglobin's affinity for O₂ so more oxygen is released to tissues. It does not cause the liver to release bicarbonate.
Q53NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q150
Analogous structures are a result of:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Analogous structures, such as wings of butterflies and birds, perform similar functions but have different origins; they arise when unrelated lineages adapt to similar environments (convergent evolution). Divergent evolution from shared ancestry produces homologous structures.
Q54NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q151
Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Hind II, from Haemophilus influenzae, was the first restriction endonuclease isolated and cuts DNA at a specific recognition sequence. DNase I cuts DNA non-specifically, while proteases and RNases do not act on DNA.
Q55NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q152
The term ecosystem was coined by:
Not quite — the answer is B.
A. G. Tansley coined the term ecosystem in 1935. Haeckel coined the term ecology, and Odum and Warming are known for other contributions to ecology.
Q56NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q153
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Glycine is the simplest amino acid with H as its side chain and has no sulphur; the sulphur-containing amino acids are cysteine and methionine. The other statements are correct.
Q57NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q154
In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Bryophytes and pteridophytes have flagellated (motile) antherozoids that must swim through a film of water to reach the archegonium, which is why they are called amphibians of the plant kingdom (bryophytes) and are restricted to moist places.
Q58NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q156
Which one of the following statements is not true?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The tapetum is the innermost anther wall layer that nourishes developing pollen grains; dehiscence is brought about by the endothecium and stomium. The exine is made of sporopollenin, pollen causes allergies, and cryopreserved pollen is used in breeding.
Q59NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q157
Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
Not quite — the answer is A.
In primary succession on bare rock (xerarch), lichens are the pioneers: they secrete acids that weather rock and form a thin soil. Mosses and liverworts follow only after some soil has formed.
Q60NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q158
Which one of the following is the starter codon?
Not quite — the answer is A.
AUG, coding for methionine, is the initiation (start) codon. UGA, UAA and UAG are stop codons that terminate translation.
Q61NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q159
Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Birds are oviparous (lay eggs) while most mammals are viviparous, so viviparity is not shared. Both groups have bony skeletons, breathe with lungs and are warm-blooded (homeothermic).
Q62NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q160
Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Scientific names must be in Latin or Latinised form, so writing them in any language is against the rules. Binomials consist of genus followed by specific epithet, printed in italics or underlined separately when handwritten.
Q63NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q161
Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The pulmonary artery receives blood pumped by the right ventricle, so its pressure (about 25/8 mm Hg) is higher than in the pulmonary vein returning blood to the left atrium. It is much lower than systemic arterial pressure in the aorta or carotid, and higher than in the venae cavae.
Q64NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q162
Cotyledon of maize grain is called:
Not quite — the answer is D.
In monocot grains like maize the single large shield-shaped cotyledon is the scutellum. Coleoptile and coleorhiza are sheaths covering the plumule and radicle respectively.
Q65NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q165
Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom:
Not quite — the answer is B.
In Whittaker's five-kingdom system these unicellular eukaryotic groups, along with protozoans, are placed in kingdom Protista. Monera contains prokaryotes, and slime moulds are not true fungi.
Q66NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q167
In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Urea is made in the liver by the ornithine cycle, so blood leaving the liver in the hepatic vein carries the highest urea load. The renal vein carries the least, because urea has been removed by the kidneys.
Q67NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q168
Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Apomixis is the formation of seeds without fertilisation, a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction (e.g. some grasses and Asteraceae). Somatic hybridisation is fusion of protoplasts, and budding and sporulation are other asexual methods that do not produce seeds.
Q68NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q169
Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Clostridium butylicum is used to produce butyric acid, not lipase; lipases for removing oily stains in detergents come from other microbes. Cyclosporin A from Trichoderma, statins from Monascus and streptokinase from Streptococcus are correctly matched.
Q69NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q170
In a testcross involving F₁ dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Independent assortment would give equal parental and recombinant classes (1:1:1:1) in a dihybrid testcross. An excess of parental types means the genes tend to be inherited together, i.e. they are linked on the same chromosome, with recombinants coming only from crossing over.
Q70NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q172
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Synapsis, the pairing of homologous chromosomes, occurs only in zygotene of meiosis I. Spindle formation, disappearance of the nucleolus and chromosome movement all occur during mitosis.
Q71NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q173
Which of the following statements is not correct?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The pistil accepts only compatible pollen; pollen of other species is usually rejected, and many compatible pollen tubes of the same species can grow down the style, not just one. The other statements, about pollen/nectar robbers, pollen-pistil chemical interaction and reptile pollinators, are from NCERT and correct.
Q72NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q174
Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Specialised epidermal cells next to the guard cells are subsidiary cells, and together they form the stomatal apparatus. Bulliform cells are large cells on grass leaves that help leaf rolling, and lenticels are pores in bark.
Q73NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q177
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Methanogens such as Methanobacterium are archaebacteria in the rumen and in cattle dung that produce methane, the main component of biogas. Halophiles and thermoacidophiles are archaebacteria of salty and hot acidic habitats.
Q74NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q179
A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in:
Not quite — the answer is B.
If chromosomes separate but no cell plate forms (failure of cytokinesis), both sets stay in one cell and the chromosome number doubles, i.e. polyploidy. Aneuploidy is gain or loss of single chromosomes, and polyteny is repeated DNA replication without separation of chromatids.
Q75NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q180
A typical fat molecule is made up of:
Not quite — the answer is B.
A typical fat (triglyceride) is formed by esterification of one glycerol molecule with three fatty acid molecules. Monoglycerides have only one fatty acid, and fats never contain three glycerols.
Biology: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 6 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
6 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q100
A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Ley farming alternates cropping with periods of grass or legume pasture (ley), which adds organic matter and nitrogen and improves soil structure. Contour and strip farming are soil-conservation layouts on slopes, and shifting agriculture is slash-and-burn cultivation.
Q2NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q127
Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The Government of India introduced Joint Forest Management in the late 1980s (1988 forest policy, guidelines in 1990) to involve local communities in protecting and managing forests. It did not exist in the 1960s or 1970s.
Q3NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q163
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Parietal (oxyntic) cells of gastric glands secrete HCl and intrinsic factor. Peptic (chief) cells secrete pepsinogen, and gastrin-secreting G cells release a hormone that stimulates acid secretion.
Q4NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q164
Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Stratospheric ozone absorbs UV-B radiation; its depletion lets more UV-B reach the earth, damaging DNA and increasing skin cancer. Nitrous oxide and methane are greenhouse gases, not UV shields.
Q5NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q175
Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The common hepatopancreatic duct opening into the duodenum is guarded by the sphincter of Oddi. The pyloric sphincter guards the stomach-duodenum opening, the ileocaecal valve the ileum-caecum junction, and semilunar valves are in the heart's arteries.
Q6NEET 2016 Phase 1 · Q178
A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Microbes decomposing the organic matter in sewage consume large amounts of dissolved oxygen (high BOD), so oxygen falls sharply and fish die. The river does not dry up, and fish production falls rather than rises.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2016 Phase 1 Biology
- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants6 Q
- Principles of Inheritance and Variation6 Q
- Animal Kingdom4 Q
- Cell: The Unit of Life4 Q
- Molecular Basis of Inheritance4 Q
- Human Reproduction4 Q
- Biological Classification3 Q
- Photosynthesis in Higher Plants3 Q
- Breathing and Exchange of Gases3 Q
- Morphology of Flowering Plants3 Q
- Ecosystem3 Q
- Biotechnology: Principles and Processes3 Q
- Human Health and Disease3 Q
- Evolution3 Q
- Cell Cycle and Cell Division2 Q
- Biodiversity and Conservation2 Q
- Chemical Coordination and Integration2 Q
- Plant Kingdom2 Q
- Biomolecules2 Q
- Microbes in Human Welfare2 Q
- Organisms and Populations1 Q
- Neural Control and Coordination1 Q
- Plant Growth and Development1 Q
- Reproductive Health1 Q
- Biotechnology and Its Applications1 Q
- Locomotion and Movement1 Q
- Structural Organisation in Animals1 Q
- The Living World1 Q
- Body Fluids and Circulation1 Q
- Excretory Products and Their Elimination1 Q
- Anatomy of Flowering Plants1 Q
About this paper
How many questions from NEET 2016 Phase 1 are on this page?
160 questions (Physics 38, Chemistry 41, Biology 81). Questions that need a diagram we could not reproduce, or whose wording in the source was unclear, are left out.
Are these the original questions?
Yes. The questions and options are as set in the NEET 2016 Phase 1 paper, conducted by CBSE. The answer to every question was checked by the RankUp team, and the explanations are RankUp's own.
Is NEET 2016 Phase 1 useful for NEET 2027?
Yes. The NEET syllabus is built on the same NCERT books. 17 questions here are on topics NCERT has since dropped; they are listed separately so you can skip them.
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