AIPMT 2014 Question PaperPhysics, Chemistry and Biology, with checked answers and solutions
By the RankUp team, founded by Dr. Deepak Sahu (MBBS Gold Medalist, NEET PG AIR 1731) · Updated
159 questions from the AIPMT 2014 paper, conducted by CBSE. Tap an option to check your answer and read why it is right. Each subject has a free PDF with the answer key and explanations.
- Exam
- AIPMT 2014
- Conducted by
- CBSE
- Physics
- 37 questions
- Chemistry
- 41 questions
- Biology
- 81 questions
AIPMT 2014 Physics questions
37 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2014
A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the sphere respectively are:
Not quite — the answer is A.
The charge sits on the surface and the field inside a conductor is zero, so the field at the centre is zero. Since E = 0 inside, the potential is constant throughout and equals the surface value Q/(4πε₀R); a zero potential at the centre is the common trap.
Q2AIPMT 2014
If n₁, n₂ and n₃ are the fundamental frequencies of three segments into which a string is divided, then the original fundamental frequency n of the string is given by:
Not quite — the answer is D.
At fixed tension and linear density the fundamental frequency is n = (1/2l)√(T/μ), so l ∝ 1/n. Since the segment lengths add up to the whole length, 1/n = 1/n₁ + 1/n₂ + 1/n₃; simply adding the frequencies would wrongly treat n ∝ l.
Q3AIPMT 2014
Copper of fixed volume 'V' is drawn into wire of length 'l'. When this wire is subjected to a constant force 'F', the extension produced in the wire is 'Δl'. Which of the following graphs is a straight line?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Δl = Fl/(AY), and with fixed volume A = V/l, so Δl = Fl²/(VY). Hence Δl is proportional to l², giving a straight line against l², not against l.
Q4AIPMT 2014
The resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 Ω and R Ω, respectively. When the resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new balance point is at 1.6 l₁. The resistance 'R', is: (l₁ is the initial balance length measured from end A, on the side of the 5 Ω resistance)
Not quite — the answer is A.
Initially 5/R = l₁/(100 − l₁). After shunting, the arm becomes R/2: 10/R = 1.6l₁/(100 − 1.6l₁). Dividing, 2 = 1.6(100 − l₁)/(100 − 1.6l₁) gives l₁ = 25 cm, so R = 5 × 75/25 = 15 Ω.
Q5AIPMT 2014
A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x, y) are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0, (6 m, 7 m) at time t = 2 s and (13 m, 14 m) at time t = 5 s. Average velocity vector (V⃗av) from t = 0 to t = 5 s is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Average velocity = total displacement/total time. Displacement from (2, 3) to (13, 14) is 11î + 11ĵ in 5 s, giving (11/5)(î + ĵ); dividing the final position by time ignores the starting point.
Q6AIPMT 2014
Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angle to each other, with one above other such that 'O' is their common point for the two. The wires carry I₁ and I₂ currents respectively. Point 'P' is lying at distance 'd' from 'O' along a direction perpendicular to the plane containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point 'P' will be:
Not quite — the answer is C.
P is at distance d from each long wire, so each gives B = μ₀I/(2πd). The two wires are perpendicular, so their fields at P are perpendicular and add as vectors: B = (μ₀/2πd)√(I₁² + I₂²), not the simple sum.
Q7AIPMT 2014
A system consists of three masses m₁, m₂ and m₃ connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass m₁ hangs freely and m₂ and m₃ are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = μ). The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m₁ is: (Assume m₁ = m₂ = m₃ = m)
Not quite — the answer is B.
The driving force is m₁g = mg and friction on the two table masses is 2μmg, while all three masses (3m) accelerate together. a = (mg − 2μmg)/(3m) = g(1 − 2μ)/3.
Q8AIPMT 2014
In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be:
Not quite — the answer is B.
The galvanometer carries I/500, and since it is in parallel with the shunt, the voltage across the ammeter is (I/500)G. Ammeter resistance = V/I = G/500; G/499 is the shunt alone, not the combination.
Q9AIPMT 2014
If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of:
Not quite — the answer is C.
For a compound microscope M ≈ (L/f₀)(D/fₑ), so a larger objective focal length lowers M. For a telescope M = f₀/fₑ, so it rises; the two instruments respond oppositely.
Q10AIPMT 2014
The angle of a prism is 'A'. One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on the first surface returns back through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive index μ, of the prism is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
To return along its path the ray must strike the silvered face normally, so the refraction angle at the first face equals the prism angle, r = A. Then μ = sin 2A/sin A = 2 cos A.
Q11AIPMT 2014
The number of possible natural oscillations of air column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are: (velocity of sound = 340 ms⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is C.
For a closed pipe the fundamental is v/4L = 340/(4 × 0.85) = 100 Hz and only odd harmonics exist: 100, 300, 500, 700, 900, 1100 Hz. That makes 6 below 1250 Hz; counting all harmonics would wrongly give more.
Q12AIPMT 2014
Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires. The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5 Ω. The power loss in the wire is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Over 150 km, the voltage drop is 150 × 8 = 1200 V and the resistance is 150 × 0.5 = 75 Ω. Power lost = V²/R = 1200²/75 = 19 200 W = 19.2 kW.
Q13AIPMT 2014
A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
First minima lie at y = ±λD/a, so their separation is 2λD/a = 2 × 600 × 10⁻⁹ × 2/10⁻³ = 2.4 × 10⁻³ m = 2.4 mm. Forgetting the factor 2 gives 1.2 mm.
Q14AIPMT 2014
If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are:
Not quite — the answer is C.
F = ma = m(V/T), so m = FT/V, i.e. [F V⁻¹ T].
Q15AIPMT 2014
The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on: (a) type of semi conductor material (b) amount of doping (c) temperature. Which one of the following is correct?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The barrier potential depends on the semiconductor (about 0.7 V for Si, 0.3 V for Ge), increases with doping, and falls as temperature rises. So all three factors matter.
Q16AIPMT 2014
The Binding energy per nucleon of ⁷₃Li and ⁴₂He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In the nuclear reaction ⁷₃Li + ¹₁H → ⁴₂He + ⁴₂He + Q, the value of energy Q released is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Q = BE of products − BE of reactants = 2 × 4 × 7.06 − 7 × 5.60 = 56.48 − 39.20 = 17.28 ≈ 17.3 MeV (the proton has no binding energy).
Q17AIPMT 2014
If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
λ = h/√(2mK), so λ ∝ 1/√K. Increasing K 16 times makes λ one quarter of its value, a 75% decrease; 25% is the remaining fraction, not the change.
Q18AIPMT 2014
Light with an energy flux of 25 × 10⁴ Wm⁻² falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm², the average force exerted on the surface is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
For a perfect reflector the momentum change doubles, F = 2IA/c = 2 × 25 × 10⁴ × 15 × 10⁻⁴/(3 × 10⁸) = 2.5 × 10⁻⁶ N. Using IA/c (absorbing surface) would give half this.
Q19AIPMT 2014
In a region, the potential is represented by V(x, y, z) = 6x − 8xy − 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and x, y, z are in meters. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at point (1, 1, 1) is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
E = −∇V: Ex = −(6 − 8y) = 2, Ey = −(−8x − 8 + 6z) = 10, Ez = −6y = −6 at (1, 1, 1). |E| = √(4 + 100 + 36) = √140 = 2√35 V/m, so F = qE = 4√35 N.
Q20AIPMT 2014
A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead of him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds that traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him at 18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. If the speed of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Motorcyclist (10 m/s) moves towards the car, and the car (5 m/s, the source) moves away from him. f′ = 1392 × (343 + 10)/(343 + 5) = 1392 × 353/348 = 1412 Hz.
Q21AIPMT 2014
The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass 'm' and radius 'R') rolling down an incline of angle 'θ' without slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Rolling solid sphere: a = g sin θ/(1 + k²/R²) = g sin θ/(1 + 2/5) = (5/7)g sin θ. Slipping without rolling: a = g sin θ. Ratio = 5 : 7, not the inverse 7 : 5.
Q22AIPMT 2014
In the Young's double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ is K, (λ being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a point where the path difference is λ/4, will be:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Path difference λ is a maximum, so K = I_max. Path difference λ/4 means phase difference π/2, so I = I_max cos²(π/4) = K/2.
Q23AIPMT 2014
A balloon with mass 'm' is descending down with an acceleration 'a' (where a < g). How much mass should be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration 'a'?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Descending: mg − U = ma, so the upthrust U = m(g − a). Rising with mass m′: U − m′g = m′a, so m′ = m(g − a)/(g + a). Mass removed = m − m′ = 2ma/(g + a).
Q24AIPMT 2014
A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of a given cell. The main battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When the resistance, R, connected across the given cell, has values of (i) infinity (ii) 9.5 Ω, the 'balancing lengths', on the potentiometer wire are found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, respectively. The value of internal resistance of the cell is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
With R = ∞ the balancing length gives the emf, and with R connected it gives the terminal voltage, so r = R(l₁/l₂ − 1) = 9.5 × (3/2.85 − 1) = 9.5 × 0.15/2.85 = 0.5 Ω.
Q25AIPMT 2014
A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final pressure of the gas is: (take γ = 5/3)
Not quite — the answer is B.
Isothermal doubling halves the pressure to P/2. Adiabatic from 2V to 16V: P_f = (P/2)(2/16)^(5/3) = (P/2)(1/32) = P/64. Pressure must fall on expansion, so the large multiples are impossible.
Q26AIPMT 2014
A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius 'r' coalesce to form a single drop of radius 'R' and volume 'V'. If 'T' is the surface tension of the liquid, then:
Not quite — the answer is B.
With n = R³/r³ drops, the area lost is 4π(nr² − R²) = 4πR³(1/r − 1/R) = 3V(1/r − 1/R). Since surface area decreases, surface energy 3VT(1/r − 1/R) is released, not absorbed.
Q27AIPMT 2014
A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces, each of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (v). The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
The two m pieces have perpendicular momenta mv each, so the 2m piece carries √2 mv and moves at v/√2. Total KE = 2 × (1/2)mv² + (1/2)(2m)(v²/2) = (3/2)mv².
Q28AIPMT 2014
Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 Å. Number of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Photon energy = 12400/975 ≈ 12.7 eV, which matches E₄ − E₁ = 13.6(1 − 1/16) = 12.75 eV, so the atom reaches n = 4. Lines emitted = n(n − 1)/2 = 6.
Q29AIPMT 2014
A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 × 10²⁴ kg) have to be compressed to be a black hole?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Setting escape speed √(2GM/R) equal to c gives R = 2GM/c² = 2 × 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ × 5.98 × 10²⁴/(9 × 10¹⁶) ≈ 8.9 × 10⁻³ m, which is of the order 10⁻² m.
Q30AIPMT 2014
A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 ms⁻¹ and angle θ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 ms⁻¹ at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms⁻²) is: (given g = 9.8 ms⁻²)
Not quite — the answer is D.
The trajectory y = x tan θ − gx²/(2u²cos²θ) is identical when g/u² is the same. g′ = 9.8 × 3²/5² = 3.53 ≈ 3.5 m s⁻²; scaling with u instead of u² gives the wrong value.
Q31AIPMT 2014
Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the surroundings is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Using Newton's law with average temperatures: 10/5 = k(65 − T₀) and 6/5 = k(57 − T₀). Dividing, 5/3 = (65 − T₀)/(57 − T₀), so T₀ = 45°C.
Q32AIPMT 2014
A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder with one end attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in the string required to produce an angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s⁻² is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
I = (1/2)MR² = (1/2)(50)(0.5)² = 6.25 kg m² and α = 2 rev s⁻² = 4π rad s⁻². TR = Iα gives T = 6.25 × 4π/0.5 = 50π ≈ 157 N; using α = 2 rad s⁻² gives the 25 N trap.
Q33AIPMT 2014
Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When water acquires a temperature of 80°C, the mass of water present will be: [Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g⁻¹]
Not quite — the answer is C.
Heat from steam condensing and cooling to 80°C: m(540 + 20) = 560m. Heat gained by water: 20 × 1 × 70 = 1400 cal, so m = 2.5 g. Total water = 20 + 2.5 = 22.5 g.
Q34AIPMT 2014
A radio isotope 'X' with a half life 1.4 × 10⁹ years decays to 'Y' which is stable. A sample of the rock from a cave was found to contain 'X' and 'Y' in the ratio 1 : 7. The age of the rock is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
X : Y = 1 : 7 means 1/8 of the original X remains, i.e. 3 half-lives. Age = 3 × 1.4 × 10⁹ = 4.2 × 10⁹ years.
Q35AIPMT 2014
A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 6 A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil respectively are:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Primary current = 3000/200 = 15 A. Output power = 0.9 × 3000 = 2700 W, so secondary voltage = 2700/6 = 450 V; ignoring efficiency gives 500 V, which is not offered.
Q36AIPMT 2014
When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
E − φ = 0.5 eV and 1.2E − φ = 0.8 eV. Subtracting, 0.2E = 0.3 eV, so E = 1.5 eV and φ = 1.0 eV; 1.5 eV is the photon energy, not the work function.
Q37AIPMT 2014
The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius 'r') is inversely proportional to:
Not quite — the answer is A.
λ = 1/(√2 π d² n) with molecular diameter d = 2r, so the mean free path is inversely proportional to r².
Chapter-wise split of AIPMT 2014 Physics
- Waves3 Q
- Current Electricity3 Q
- Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance2 Q
- Motion in a Plane2 Q
- Moving Charges and Magnetism2 Q
- Laws of Motion2 Q
- Ray Optics and Optical Instruments2 Q
- Wave Optics2 Q
- Nuclei2 Q
- Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter2 Q
- System of Particles and Rotational Motion2 Q
- Thermal Properties of Matter2 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Solids1 Q
- Units and Measurements1 Q
- Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits1 Q
- Electromagnetic Waves1 Q
- Thermodynamics1 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Fluids1 Q
- Work, Energy and Power1 Q
- Atoms1 Q
- Gravitation1 Q
- Alternating Current1 Q
- Kinetic Theory1 Q
AIPMT 2014 Chemistry questions
32 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2014
The reaction of aqueous KMnO₄ with H₂O₂ in acidic conditions gives:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In acid, MnO₄⁻ is reduced to Mn²⁺ while H₂O₂ is oxidised to O₂: 2MnO₄⁻ + 5H₂O₂ + 6H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 5O₂ + 8H₂O. Ozone is never formed, and Mn⁴⁺/MnO₂ forms only in neutral or weakly basic medium.
Q2AIPMT 2014
Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt RN₂⁺X⁻?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Benzenediazonium salts are stabilised by resonance of the –N₂⁺ group with the ring and are stable below about 5°C. Aliphatic and benzyl diazonium salts lack this delocalisation and decompose immediately, losing N₂.
Q3AIPMT 2014
Which of the following hormones is produced under the condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Adrenaline (epinephrine), the 'fight or flight' hormone, is released under stress and promotes glycogenolysis in the liver to raise blood glucose. Insulin does the opposite, favouring glycogen formation.
Q4AIPMT 2014
1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O₂ in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much? (At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)
Not quite — the answer is D.
2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO. 0.56 g O₂ = 0.0175 mol, which needs 0.035 mol Mg = 0.84 g, while 1.0 g Mg is available, so O₂ is limiting. Mg left over = 1.0 − 0.84 = 0.16 g.
Q5AIPMT 2014
In acidic medium, H₂O₂ changes Cr₂O₇²⁻ to CrO₅ which has two (–O–O–) bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO₅ is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
CrO₅ has one oxide oxygen (−2) and two peroxide O–O groups (four O at −1). x − 2 − 4 = 0 gives x = +6; treating all five O as −2 would give the impossible +10.
Q6AIPMT 2014
Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Na₂CO₃ is a salt of a strong base and weak acid; CO₃²⁻ hydrolyses to give OH⁻, so its solution is basic. NaCl and KCl give neutral solutions and CuSO₄ is acidic by hydrolysis of Cu²⁺.
Q7AIPMT 2014
Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Only acids stronger than carbonic acid release CO₂ from NaHCO₃ and dissolve. Benzoic acid, benzenesulphonic acid and picric acid (2,4,6-trinitrophenol) are strong enough, but o-nitrophenol, with only one nitro group and intramolecular H-bonding, is weaker than H₂CO₃.
Q8AIPMT 2014
For the reaction: X₂O₄(l) → 2XO₂(g), ΔU = 2.1 kcal, ΔS = 20 cal K⁻¹ at 300 K. Hence, ΔG is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Δn(g) = 2, so ΔH = ΔU + ΔnRT = 2.1 + 2 × 1.987 × 10⁻³ × 300 ≈ 3.3 kcal. ΔG = ΔH − TΔS = 3.3 − 300 × 0.020 = −2.7 kcal; using ΔU directly would give −3.9 kcal.
Q9AIPMT 2014
In the following reaction, the product (A) is: Benzenediazonium chloride (C₆H₅N₂⁺Cl⁻) + Aniline (C₆H₅NH₂) —H⁺→ (A) Yellow dye
Not quite — the answer is C.
In mildly acidic medium the diazonium ion couples with aniline at the para position (electrophilic substitution) to give p-aminoazobenzene, a yellow dye. The N-coupled diazoamino compound is not the dye described.
Q10AIPMT 2014
Using the Gibbs energy change, ΔG° = +63.3 kJ, for the following reaction, Ag₂CO₃(s) ⇌ 2Ag⁺(aq) + CO₃²⁻(aq), the Ksp of Ag₂CO₃(s) in water at 25°C is: (R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is A.
ΔG° = −2.303RT log Ksp, so log Ksp = −63 300/(2.303 × 8.314 × 298) = −11.09. Ksp = 10⁻¹¹·⁰⁹ ≈ 8.0 × 10⁻¹².
Q11AIPMT 2014
Identify Z in the sequence of reactions: CH₃CH₂CH=CH₂ —HBr/H₂O₂→ Y —C₂H₅ONa→ Z
Not quite — the answer is D.
With peroxide, HBr adds anti-Markovnikov to but-1-ene giving 1-bromobutane (Y). Williamson synthesis with sodium ethoxide then gives CH₃(CH₂)₃–O–CH₂CH₃; the branched sec-butyl ether would come from Markovnikov addition.
Q12AIPMT 2014
In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H₂SO₄. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
10 mL of 1 M H₂SO₄ = 10 mmol, which neutralises 20 mmol NH₃, containing 20 mmol N = 0.28 g. %N = 0.28/0.75 × 100 = 37.33.
Q13AIPMT 2014
When 22.4 litres of H₂(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl₂(g), each at S.T.P., the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal to:
Not quite — the answer is D.
H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl. 22.4 L H₂ = 1 mol and 11.2 L Cl₂ = 0.5 mol, so Cl₂ is limiting and gives 2 × 0.5 = 1 mol HCl, not 2 mol.
Q14AIPMT 2014
Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones, and an electron-withdrawing –NO₂ at the para position makes the carbonyl carbon more electrophilic. Electron-donating –CH₃ lowers reactivity, so p-nitrobenzaldehyde is most reactive.
Q15AIPMT 2014
Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm: (Planck's constant h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ Js; speed of light c = 3 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is C.
E = hc/λ = (6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ × 3 × 10⁸)/(45 × 10⁻⁹) = 4.42 × 10⁻¹⁸ J.
Q16AIPMT 2014
Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product (CO₂)?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Carbon in CO₂ is sp hybridised. Ethyne carbons are also sp, whereas ethene carbons are sp² and ethane/ethanol carbons are sp³.
Q17AIPMT 2014
Be²⁺ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Be²⁺ has 4 − 2 = 2 electrons, the same as Li⁺ (3 − 1 = 2). Na⁺ and Mg²⁺ have 10 electrons and H⁺ has none.
Q18AIPMT 2014
Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions? (At. nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)
Not quite — the answer is A.
μ = √(n(n + 2)) = 2.83 BM gives n = 2 unpaired electrons. Ni²⁺ (3d⁸) has 2, while Cr³⁺ (3d³) has 3, Mn²⁺ (3d⁵) has 5 and Ti³⁺ (3d¹) has 1.
Q19AIPMT 2014
The weight of silver (at. wt. = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O₂ at STP will be:
Not quite — the answer is C.
5600 mL O₂ at STP = 0.25 mol; since 2H₂O → O₂ + 4H⁺ + 4e⁻, this requires 1 mol electrons = 1 F. One faraday deposits 1 mol Ag = 108 g.
Q20AIPMT 2014
For the reversible reaction: N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) + heat. The equilibrium shifts in forward direction:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The forward reaction lowers the number of gas moles (4 → 2) and releases heat. By Le Chatelier's principle, raising pressure and lowering temperature both favour it; adding NH₃ or removing reactants pushes it backward.
Q21AIPMT 2014
The pair of compounds that can exist together is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
FeCl₂ and SnCl₂ are both reducing agents, so they do not react with each other. SnCl₂ reduces HgCl₂ and FeCl₃, and FeCl₃ oxidises I⁻ to I₂, so those pairs cannot coexist.
Q22AIPMT 2014
Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent?
Not quite — the answer is A.
cis-[PtCl₂(NH₃)₂] (cisplatin) binds DNA and is used in cancer chemotherapy. The trans isomer and the other complexes listed do not have this use.
Q23AIPMT 2014
Among the following complexes the one which shows Zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Fe³⁺ is 3d⁵, and with weak-field H₂O it is high spin t₂g³e_g²: CFSE = 3(−0.4Δ₀) + 2(+0.6Δ₀) = 0. Co²⁺ (d⁷), Co³⁺ (d⁶) and Mn³⁺ (d⁴) all have non-zero CFSE.
Q24AIPMT 2014
Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape?
Not quite — the answer is A.
In NO₃⁻ the nitrogen has three bond pairs and no lone pair (sp²), giving a trigonal planar shape. NO₂⁻ has a lone pair and is bent, while CO₂ and N₃⁻ are linear.
Q25AIPMT 2014
Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment?
Not quite — the answer is B.
In NH₃ the lone-pair moment and the N–H bond moments point the same way, giving about 1.47 D. In NF₃ the N–F bond moments oppose the lone pair (about 0.23 D), and CH₄ and CO₂ are non-polar.
Q26AIPMT 2014
Reason of lanthanoid contraction is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
4f orbitals are diffuse and shield the outer electrons poorly, so as nuclear charge rises across the series the effective nuclear charge increases and radii shrink. Increasing nuclear charge alone would not explain it; the poor f-shielding is the cause.
Q27AIPMT 2014
Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Phenol with NaOH forms sodium phenoxide, which reacts with CH₃I by Williamson synthesis to give C₆H₅OCH₃ (anisole). Neutral FeCl₃ only gives a colour test, and the other reagent sets give ketones or alcohols.
Q28AIPMT 2014
When 0.1 mol MnO₄²⁻ is oxidised the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidise MnO₄²⁻ to MnO₄⁻ is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
MnO₄²⁻ → MnO₄⁻ + e⁻ (Mn +6 to +7), one electron per ion. 0.1 mol needs 0.1 F = 0.1 × 96 500 = 9650 C.
Q29AIPMT 2014
Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression?
Not quite — the answer is B.
ΔTf = iKf m, so at equal molality the solute giving most particles wins. Al₂(SO₄)₃ gives 5 ions (i = 5), versus 3 for K₂SO₄, 2 for KCl and 1 for glucose.
Q30AIPMT 2014
What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum numbers? n = 3, l = 1, mₗ = 0
Not quite — the answer is D.
n = 3 and l = 1 specify the 3p subshell, and mₗ = 0 picks out exactly one of its three orbitals. Three would be the answer if mₗ were not given.
Q31AIPMT 2014
D(+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be: (Fischer projections: C-1 is CH=NOH and C-6 is CH₂OH; the side of the –OH group on C-2, C-3, C-4 and C-5 is given)
Not quite — the answer is C.
Oxime formation only changes the C-1 aldehyde to CH=NOH, so the D-glucose configuration is retained: –OH on the right at C-2, left at C-3, and right at C-4 and C-5.
Q32AIPMT 2014 · Q35
Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the order:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Down group 16 the H–E bond lengthens and its bond enthalpy falls, so H⁺ is released more easily. Acidity therefore increases H₂S < H₂Se < H₂Te, opposite to the electronegativity trend.
Chemistry: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 9 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
9 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2014 · Q3
Which one of the following is not a common component of Photochemical Smog?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Photochemical smog contains ozone, NO₂, peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), acrolein and formaldehyde formed from hydrocarbons and NOₓ in sunlight. Chlorofluorocarbons are linked to stratospheric ozone depletion, not smog.
Q2AIPMT 2014 · Q8
Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Dacron (terylene) is a condensation polyester of terephthalic acid (benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid) and ethylene glycol. Benzoic acid is monocarboxylic and cannot build a chain.
Q3AIPMT 2014 · Q18
Which property of colloids is not dependent on the charge on colloidal particles?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The Tyndall effect is the scattering of light by particles of colloidal size and does not depend on their charge. Electrophoresis, electro-osmosis and coagulation all arise from the charge on the particles.
Q4AIPMT 2014 · Q21
Which one of the following is an example of a thermosetting polymer?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Bakelite (phenol–formaldehyde resin) forms a three-dimensional cross-linked network on heating and cannot be remelted, so it is thermosetting. PVC is a thermoplastic, nylon-6,6 a fibre and neoprene an elastomer.
Q5AIPMT 2014 · Q32
If a is the length of the side of a cube, the distance between the body centered atom and one corner atom in the cube will be:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The body diagonal of a cube is √3a, and the body-centre atom sits at its midpoint. Distance to a corner = (√3/2)a; (√3/4)a is the BCC atomic radius, not this distance.
Q6AIPMT 2014 · Q37
Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Adsorbed gas molecules lose freedom of motion, so ΔS is negative. For ΔG = ΔH − TΔS to be negative, ΔH must be sufficiently negative (exothermic).
Q7AIPMT 2014 · Q38
Artificial sweetener which is stable under cold conditions only is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Aspartame decomposes at cooking temperatures, so its use is limited to cold foods and soft drinks. Sucralose and saccharin are heat stable, and alitame is also more stable than aspartame.
Q8AIPMT 2014 · Q39
Equal masses of H₂, O₂ and methane have been taken in a container of volume V at temperature 27°C in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases H₂ : O₂ : methane would be:
Not quite — the answer is B.
At the same temperature and pressure, volume is proportional to moles = mass/M. For equal masses: 1/2 : 1/32 : 1/16 = 16 : 1 : 2 for H₂ : O₂ : CH₄.
Q9AIPMT 2014 · Q40
(a) H₂O₂ + O₃ → H₂O + 2O₂ (b) H₂O₂ + Ag₂O → 2Ag + H₂O + O₂. Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively:
Not quite — the answer is B.
In both reactions H₂O₂ is converted to O₂, so its oxygen goes from −1 to 0: it is oxidised and acts as a reducing agent each time. In the first it reduces O₃ and in the second it reduces Ag₂O to Ag.
Chapter-wise split of AIPMT 2014 Chemistry
- The d- and f-Block Elements4 Q
- Equilibrium3 Q
- Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers3 Q
- Structure of Atom3 Q
- Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure3 Q
- Amines2 Q
- Biomolecules2 Q
- Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry2 Q
- Electrochemistry2 Q
- Coordination Compounds2 Q
- Thermodynamics1 Q
- Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques1 Q
- Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids1 Q
- Redox Reactions1 Q
- Solutions1 Q
AIPMT 2014 Biology questions
75 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2014
The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce:
Not quite — the answer is A.
After ovulation the ruptured follicle becomes the corpus luteum, whose main secretion is progesterone, the hormone that maintains the endometrium for implantation and pregnancy. hCG is made by the trophoblast/placenta, not the corpus luteum, and the corpus luteum does not secrete only relaxin or only estrogen.
Q2AIPMT 2014
In which one of the following processes CO₂ is not released?
Not quite — the answer is C.
In lactic acid fermentation pyruvate is reduced directly to lactate by NADH, with no decarboxylation step, so no CO₂ is given off. Alcoholic fermentation releases CO₂ when pyruvate is decarboxylated to acetaldehyde, and aerobic respiration in both plants and animals releases CO₂ in the link reaction and the Krebs cycle.
Q3AIPMT 2014
Choose the correctly matched pair:
Not quite — the answer is B.
The tubular parts of nephrons are lined by simple cuboidal epithelium (with brush border in the proximal tubule). The buccal cavity is lined by stratified squamous epithelium, bronchioles by ciliated epithelium, and salivary ducts by cuboidal epithelium, so the other pairings are wrong.
Q4AIPMT 2014
Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Tobacco mosaic virus is a rod-shaped virus in which a single helically coiled RNA strand is surrounded by a protein coat made of repeating capsomeres. Measles, polio and retroviruses are not the classic example of this helical coiled-RNA architecture taught for TMV.
Q5AIPMT 2014
Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Siberian cranes and many other migratory waterbirds from cold northern regions spend the winter at Keoladeo National Park (Bharatpur, Rajasthan), a wetland famous as a wintering ground. Corbett National Park is a tiger reserve and the Western Ghats and Meghalaya are noted for endemic flora and fauna, not as this classic migratory-bird refuge.
Q6AIPMT 2014
You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Even after secondary growth the primary xylem persists: protoxylem is endarch (towards the pith) in a dicot stem but exarch (towards the periphery) in a dicot root, so it distinguishes the two. Secondary xylem, secondary phloem and cortex are formed or arranged similarly in both old organs and do not reliably separate them.
Q7AIPMT 2014
In 'S' phase of the cell cycle:
Not quite — the answer is D.
DNA replicates during the S (synthesis) phase, so the DNA content of the cell doubles (2C to 4C). The chromosome number does not increase because each chromosome simply comes to have two sister chromatids joined at the centromere.
Q8AIPMT 2014
A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called:
Not quite — the answer is B.
In IUCN categories a 'Critically Endangered' species faces an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild in the immediate future. 'Vulnerable' means a high risk in the medium-term future, 'Endemic' only means restricted to one region, and 'Extinct' species no longer exist.
Q9AIPMT 2014
Fruit colour in squash is an example of:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In summer squash the dominant allele for white fruit colour masks the expression of the gene for yellow versus green, giving a 12 : 3 : 1 ratio in F₂, which is dominant epistasis. Recessive epistasis gives 9 : 3 : 4 and complementary genes give 9 : 7, so those do not fit.
Q10AIPMT 2014
Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland and regulates the diurnal (24-hour) sleep-wake rhythm, so this match is correct. Atrial natriuretic factor comes from the atrial wall and lowers blood pressure, growth of female secondary sex organs is due to estrogen, and oxytocin causes milk ejection rather than growth of mammary glands.
Q11AIPMT 2014
An example of edible underground stem is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Potato is a stem tuber: its 'eyes' are nodes bearing buds, which proves it is a modified underground stem. Sweet potato and carrot are modified storage roots, and groundnut is a fruit that develops underground.
Q12AIPMT 2014
Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Aldosterone from the adrenal cortex (released through the renin-angiotensin pathway) increases Na⁺ reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule. ADH acts mainly on water permeability of the distal tubule and collecting duct, and a fall in aldosterone would reduce, not increase, Na⁺ reabsorption.
Q13AIPMT 2014
Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Mesosomes are infoldings of the bacterial plasma membrane thought to bear respiratory enzymes, so they are described as performing the role of mitochondria. Ribosomes make proteins, the nucleoid holds the DNA, and the cell wall gives shape and protection.
Q14AIPMT 2014
Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Malonate resembles succinate and is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase, so adding a large excess of succinate out-competes it and reverses the inhibition; the statement that it does not reverse the inhibition is therefore incorrect. The other statements (substrate binds at the active site, non-competitive inhibitors bind elsewhere, malonate is competitive) are all true.
Q15AIPMT 2014
The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Microfilaments are solid filaments about 6 nm thick made of a single kind of monomer, actin. Microtubules are hollow tubes of tubulin about 25 nm wide, and intermediate filaments (such as lamins) are about 10 nm and built from varied proteins.
Q16AIPMT 2014
Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Gorgonia (sea-fan) is a cnidarian, an animal, so its cells have no cell wall. Saccharomyces (yeast) has a chitinous/glucan wall, and blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) have a peptidoglycan cell wall.
Q17AIPMT 2014
Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Tracheids are elongated cells with tapering ends and no perforations in their end walls (imperforate), whereas vessel members have perforation plates. Both tracheids and vessels are lignified and dead without a nucleus at maturity, and Casparian strips belong to the endodermis, not tracheary elements.
Q18AIPMT 2014
Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Gliding joints occur between the carpals, allowing small sliding movements. The pivot joint is between atlas and axis (not the third and fourth cervical vertebrae), the humerus and pectoral girdle form a ball and socket joint, and frontal and parietal bones meet at a fibrous (suture) joint.
Q19AIPMT 2014
A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The woman's colour-blind mother must give her Xᶜ and her normal father gives a normal X, so she is a carrier (XXᶜ). Sons receive their X only from the mother, so half the sons get Xᶜ and are colour blind: 50%. The man's father being colour blind does not matter, because a father never passes his X to his sons and the man himself is normal.
Q20AIPMT 2014
A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become white-coloured like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Seedlings grown in darkness cannot form chlorophyll and become pale, yellow-white and elongated; this condition is called etiolation. They are not mutated (the change reverses in light), and defoliation and embolism refer to leaf loss and air blockage of xylem.
Q21AIPMT 2014
Function of filiform apparatus is to:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The filiform apparatus consists of finger-like wall thickenings at the micropylar tip of the synergids, and it guides the pollen tube into the synergid. Recognition of compatible pollen happens on the stigma, and nectar is produced by nectaries, not by the embryo sac.
Q22AIPMT 2014
Choose the correctly matched pair:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Areolar tissue is a loose connective tissue found beneath the skin. Adipose tissue is also loose (not dense) connective tissue, tendon is dense regular connective tissue, and cartilage is a specialised connective tissue.
Q23AIPMT 2014
Which one of the following is a non-reducing carbohydrate?
Not quite — the answer is A.
In sucrose the glycosidic bond joins C1 of glucose with C2 of fructose, so both reducing (carbonyl) groups are tied up and the sugar is non-reducing. Lactose and maltose each keep one free anomeric carbon and ribose 5-phosphate has a free aldehyde group, so they are reducing.
Q24AIPMT 2014
At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
Not quite — the answer is B.
After infection HIV multiplies in helper T-lymphocytes; symptoms of AIDS appear only when a large number of helper T-cells have been destroyed and immunity breaks down, often years later. Entry of the virus, formation of viral DNA by reverse transcriptase or a period of 15 days after contact do not by themselves produce AIDS symptoms.
Q25AIPMT 2014
What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Anaerobic bacteria digesting sludge produce biogas, a mixture of methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. Oxygen is not produced in this anaerobic process, and listing only methane and CO₂ or only H₂S and CO₂ leaves out a component.
Q26AIPMT 2014
Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Rhodospirillum is a purple non-sulphur photosynthetic bacterium that does not use water as the electron donor, so no oxygen is evolved: anoxygenic photosynthesis. Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas and Ulva are green algae that split water and release O₂.
Q27AIPMT 2014
A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Lichens are very sensitive to sulphur dioxide and do not grow in polluted air, so luxuriant lichen growth on trees indicates that the location is not polluted. Their presence says nothing about infestation or health of the trees.
Q28AIPMT 2014
An alga which can be employed as food for human being is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Chlorella is a unicellular green alga rich in proteins and is used as a food supplement, even by space travellers. Spirogyra, Polysiphonia and Ulothrix are not used as human food.
Q29AIPMT 2014
Which one of the following growth regulators is known as 'stress hormone'?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Abscisic acid increases plant tolerance to stresses such as drought, for example by closing stomata, so it is called the stress hormone. Ethylene is a ripening/senescence hormone, and GA₃ and IAA are growth promoters.
Q30AIPMT 2014
The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes takes place in pachytene, and it is catalysed by the enzyme recombinase. Synapsis occurs in zygotene, chiasmata become visible in diplotene and terminalisation occurs in diakinesis.
Q31AIPMT 2014
An example of ex situ conservation is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
A seed bank stores germplasm away from the species' natural habitat, so it is ex situ conservation. Wildlife sanctuaries, national parks and sacred groves protect organisms in their natural habitat (in situ).
Q32AIPMT 2014
The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by:
Not quite — the answer is A.
The large central vacuole contains cell sap with dissolved solutes; it controls the osmotic entry of water and so the expansion and turgidity of a plant cell kept in water. Plastids, ribosomes and mitochondria have no such osmotic role.
Q33AIPMT 2014
Which one of the following is wrong about Chara?
Not quite — the answer is B.
In Chara the oogonium (nucule) lies above and the round antheridium (globule) lies below at the same node, so the statement 'upper antheridium and lower oogonium' is wrong. Globule and nucule do occur on the same plant and the globule is the male structure, so those statements are correct.
Q34AIPMT 2014
The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Human insulin (Humulin, by Eli Lilly in 1983) was the first human hormone produced through recombinant DNA technology, by making the A and B chains separately in E. coli. Estrogen, progesterone and thyroxine are not proteins and were not made this way.
Q35AIPMT 2014
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Retinal, the light-absorbing part of visual pigments, is an aldehyde derived from vitamin A, not vitamin C, so that statement is incorrect. The other statements about rhodopsin in rods and three photopigments in cones are true.
Q36AIPMT 2014
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The endosperm of a maize grain is surrounded by a proteinaceous aleurone layer, so this statement is correct. Mango is not parthenocarpic, a sterile stamen (not pistil) is a staminode, and grass seeds are endospermic.
Q37AIPMT 2014
Pollen tablets are available in the market for:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and pollen tablets and syrups are sold as food supplements. They are not sold for breeding programmes, conservation or in vitro fertilisation.
Q38AIPMT 2014
Select the correct option (Direction of RNA synthesis ; Direction of reading of the template DNA strand):
Not quite — the answer is D.
RNA polymerase can add nucleotides only to the 3′ end, so RNA grows 5′ → 3′; because the template is antiparallel, it is read 3′ → 5′. Any combination that has RNA growing 3′ → 5′ or the template read in the same direction as synthesis is wrong.
Q39AIPMT 2014
The organization which publishes the Red List of species is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
The Red List (Red Data Book) of threatened species is published by the IUCN, the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources. UNEP, WWF and ICFRE do not publish it.
Q40AIPMT 2014
A human female with Turner's syndrome:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Turner's syndrome results from absence of one X chromosome, giving 44 + XO = 45 chromosomes. Such females are sterile with rudimentary ovaries, so they cannot bear children, and they do not have an extra X (that is Klinefelter's XXY in males) or male characters.
Q41AIPMT 2014
Match the following and select the correct answer: (a) Centriole (b) Chlorophyll (c) Cristae (d) Ribozymes — (i) Infoldings in mitochondria (ii) Thylakoids (iii) Nucleic acids (iv) Basal body cilia or flagella
Not quite — the answer is D.
Centrioles form the basal bodies of cilia and flagella, chlorophyll is present in thylakoids, cristae are the infoldings of the inner mitochondrial membrane, and ribozymes are catalytic nucleic acids (RNA). Only the option giving exactly these four pairings is correct.
Q42AIPMT 2014
Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs:
Not quite — the answer is D.
About 70% of CO₂ is carried as bicarbonate ions formed by carbonic anhydrase in RBCs, about 20–25% as carbamino-haemoglobin and about 7% dissolved in plasma. So the bicarbonate route, not carbamino-haemoglobin, accounts for the seventy percent.
Q43AIPMT 2014
Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Plasmids can accept only small inserts (roughly up to 10 kb). Cosmids carry about 40–45 kb, BACs about 100–300 kb and YACs even larger fragments, which is why they are used for big genomic DNA pieces.
Q44AIPMT 2014
Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Amanita muscaria (fly agaric) produces hallucinogenic compounds. Neurospora is used in genetics, Ustilago causes smut disease, and Morchella esculenta (morel) is edible.
Q45AIPMT 2014
Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Cnidaria are mostly marine but include freshwater forms such as Hydra, so the phylum has both marine and freshwater species. Ctenophores, cephalochordates (Amphioxus) and echinoderms are exclusively marine.
Q46AIPMT 2014
When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In imbricate aestivation the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction, as in Cassia and gulmohur. In twisted aestivation the overlap is regularly in one direction, valvate whorls just touch without overlapping, and vexillary is the papilionaceous arrangement of pea.
Q47AIPMT 2014
An aggregate fruit is one which develops from:
Not quite — the answer is A.
An aggregate fruit develops from a multicarpellary apocarpous (free-carpel) gynoecium, each carpel forming a fruitlet, as in Annona and strawberry. A syncarpous gynoecium gives a single simple fruit, and a whole inflorescence gives a composite (multiple) fruit.
Q48AIPMT 2014
Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In the Human Genome Project the DNA was broken into large fragments and cloned in BAC (bacterial artificial chromosome) and YAC (yeast artificial chromosome) vectors, which accept very large inserts. Expression vectors, T/A cloning vectors and T-DNA are not the hosts used for genome sequencing.
Q49AIPMT 2014
Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of:
Not quite — the answer is B.
In emergencies the sympathetic system stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine (the fight-or-flight hormones), raising heart rate, blood glucose and alertness. Blood sugar rises rather than falls, and the kidney and parathyroid are not the effectors of this response.
Q50AIPMT 2014
Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at:
Not quite — the answer is D.
A motor neuron releases acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction (motor end plate), where it generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. The impulse then travels through transverse tubules and causes Ca²⁺ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, but these are later steps, not the site of stimulation.
Q51AIPMT 2014
Planaria possess high capacity of:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Planaria, a flatworm, has a remarkably high capacity for regeneration: even small pieces can regrow a whole animal. It does not show alternation of generations, bioluminescence or metamorphosis.
Q52AIPMT 2014
Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Tomato is a berry in which both the fleshy pericarp and the placenta are eaten. In banana the edible part is the mesocarp and endocarp, in apple it is the fleshy thalamus, and potato is a stem tuber, not a fruit.
Q53AIPMT 2014
Geitonogamy involves:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen from one flower to the stigma of another flower of the same plant; it is functionally cross pollination but genetically like selfing. Pollination within the same flower is autogamy, and pollen from a different plant is xenogamy.
Q54AIPMT 2014
How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Parasympathetic (vagal) signals slow the SA node and AV conduction, so heart rate falls and with it the cardiac output. Increases in heart rate or cardiac output are caused by sympathetic stimulation, not parasympathetic.
Q55AIPMT 2014
A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Torpedo, the electric ray, is a marine cartilaginous fish with electric organs that can produce shocks. Trygon (sting ray) has a poison sting, while Scoliodon (dogfish) and Pristis (saw fish) have no electric organs.
Q56AIPMT 2014
An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybridization technique does not use:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Southern hybridisation involves restriction digestion of DNA, gel electrophoresis, blotting onto a membrane, hybridisation with a labelled probe and detection by autoradiography. PCR is not a step of this technique.
Q57AIPMT 2014
Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in having a different cell wall and cell membrane structure, with branched-chain lipids joined by ether links, which helps them survive extreme habitats. Shape, mode of nutrition and reproduction overlap between the two groups.
Q58AIPMT 2014
If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain? plant → mice → snake → peacock
Not quite — the answer is D.
By the 10 percent law only about one tenth of energy passes to each next trophic level: 20 J (plant) → 2 J (mice) → 0.2 J (snake) → 0.02 J (peacock). The value 0.2 J is what the snake receives, one step short of the peacock.
Q59AIPMT 2014
Which one of the following are analogous structures?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Gills of prawn and lungs of man both carry out respiration but differ in origin and structure, so they are analogous. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita are both modified stems, flippers of dolphin and legs of horse are both pentadactyl forelimbs, and bat and pigeon wings share the vertebrate forelimb pattern, so these are homologous.
Q60AIPMT 2014
Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly-cut coleoptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Went's Avena curvature test showed that a diffusible substance collected in agar from coleoptile tips causes bending in proportion to its amount, so it became a bioassay for quantitative estimation of small amounts of auxin. It did not identify the substance chemically as IAA or demonstrate polar transport.
Q61AIPMT 2014
Non-albuminous seed is produced in:
Not quite — the answer is C.
In pea the endosperm is fully consumed by the developing embryo and food is stored in the cotyledons, so the seed is non-albuminous. Castor, wheat and maize retain endosperm in the mature seed (albuminous).
Q62AIPMT 2014
During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C?
Not quite — the answer is C.
DNA is 2C in G₁, rises to 4C during S, and stays 4C through G₂ and M until the cell divides into two 2C cells. G₁ and G₀ are 2C, and S is only partly 4C, so the phases that stay at 4C are G₂ and M.
Q63AIPMT 2014
Transformation was discovered by:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Frederick Griffith (1928), working with Streptococcus pneumoniae and mice, found that heat-killed virulent bacteria could transform live non-virulent ones: transformation. Hershey and Chase proved DNA is the genetic material, Watson and Crick gave the double helix, and Meselson and Stahl proved semiconservative replication.
Q64AIPMT 2014
In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Each AA individual carries two A alleles and each Aa carries one, so frequency of A = (2 × 360 + 480) / (2 × 1000) = 1200/2000 = 0.6. The value 0.4 is the frequency of allele a, not A.
Q65AIPMT 2014
Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Tubectomy is female sterilisation in which a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision, blocking the passage of the ovum. Removal or tying of part of the vas deferens is vasectomy in males, and ovaries or uterus are not removed.
Q66AIPMT 2014
Which of the following is responsible for peat formation?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The moss Sphagnum accumulates as peat, which is used as fuel and as packing material because of its water-holding capacity. Riccia and Marchantia are liverworts and Funaria is a moss that does not form peat.
Q67AIPMT 2014
Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Spirogyra reproduces by isogamy in which the fusing gametes are similar in size and non-flagellated (non-motile). Ulothrix and Ectocarpus have flagellated isogametes, and Sargassum is oogamous.
Q68AIPMT 2014
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Transcription copies genetic information from DNA into RNA, chiefly mRNA, so 'writing information from DNA to t-RNA' is the wrong match. Translation, the repressor binding the operator, and an operon made of structural genes, operator and promoter are all correctly described.
Q69AIPMT 2014
Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)?
Not quite — the answer is A.
LNG-20 releases the progestogen levonorgestrel, so it is a hormone-releasing IUD. Multiload 375 is a copper-releasing IUD, and the cervical cap and vault are barrier methods.
Q70AIPMT 2014
Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in:
Not quite — the answer is B.
In angiosperms such as Lilium the male gametophyte is extremely reduced: a mature pollen grain has only a vegetative cell and a generative cell (or two male gametes), at most three cells. The male gametophyte of Pinus has more cells (prothallial cells as well), and in Pteris and Funaria it is a multicellular free-living or gametophytic body.
Q71AIPMT 2014
The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
In the human male the urethra carries both urine from the bladder and semen from the ejaculatory ducts, so it is the shared terminal duct. The ureter carries only urine from kidney to bladder, and vasa efferentia and vas deferens carry only sperm.
Q72AIPMT 2014
Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The hypothalamus contains the centres that regulate body temperature (as well as hunger, thirst and pituitary control), so its injury would disrupt thermoregulation. Coordination during locomotion is a cerebellar function, and decision making and short-term memory depend on the cerebrum.
Q73AIPMT 2014
Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female:
Not quite — the answer is B.
During pregnancy the placenta secretes high levels of hCG, which maintains the corpus luteum so that it continues to produce estrogen and progesterone. FSH and LH are suppressed in pregnancy, and the endometrium is maintained by progesterone rather than thickened directly by hCG.
Q74AIPMT 2014
The motile bacteria are able to move by:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Motile bacteria move by flagella, thin filamentous extensions of the cell wall and membrane. Pili and fimbriae are surface structures for attachment and conjugation, not locomotion, and bacteria have no cilia.
Q75AIPMT 2014
Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has:
Not quite — the answer is D.
A person with AB blood has both A and B antigens on the RBCs and no anti-A or anti-B antibodies in the plasma, so donor RBCs of any ABO group are not agglutinated. Antigens are on the RBC surface, not in plasma, and group O (not AB) has no antigens.
Biology: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 6 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
6 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1AIPMT 2014
Match the following and select the correct option: (a) Earthworm (b) Succession (c) Ecosystem service (d) Population growth — (i) Pioneer species (ii) Detritivore (iii) Natality (iv) Pollination
Not quite — the answer is C.
Earthworm feeds on detritus, so it is a detritivore; succession begins with pioneer species; pollination is an ecosystem service; and natality (birth rate) adds to population growth. Only the option pairing earthworm with detritivore, succession with pioneer species, ecosystem service with pollination and population growth with natality has all four right.
Q2AIPMT 2014 · Q62
Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Fructose is absorbed across the intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier proteins down its concentration gradient, which is facilitated transport. Glucose and amino acids are absorbed by active (Na⁺ co-)transport, and simple diffusion applies to small molecules like some monosaccharides only to a limited extent.
Q3AIPMT 2014 · Q96
The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called:
Not quite — the answer is B.
The ozone layer lies in the stratosphere, the upper part of the atmosphere, where it absorbs UV-B radiation. Ozone in the troposphere is a harmful pollutant, and the mesosphere and ionosphere are not where the ozone layer lies.
Q4AIPMT 2014 · Q98
A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes:
Not quite — the answer is D.
A scrubber sprays water or lime through the exhaust and dissolves or reacts with gases such as sulphur dioxide, removing them. Particulate matter is removed mainly by electrostatic precipitators, and scrubbers are not used for ozone or methane.
Q5AIPMT 2014 · Q103
To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Even when a plant is infected with virus, its apical and axillary meristems remain free of virus, so both are cultured to obtain virus-free plants. Palisade parenchyma and epidermis are infected tissues, and limiting the choice to the apical meristem leaves out the axillary meristems.
Q6AIPMT 2014 · Q108
Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Nitrogen and potassium are mobile elements that are withdrawn from older leaves and sent to young growing parts, so their deficiency symptoms appear first in the older (senescent) leaves. Deficiency of immobile elements such as calcium appears first in young leaves and buds.
Chapter-wise split of AIPMT 2014 Biology
- Morphology of Flowering Plants6 Q
- Cell: The Unit of Life5 Q
- Molecular Basis of Inheritance5 Q
- Biodiversity and Conservation4 Q
- Animal Kingdom4 Q
- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants4 Q
- Plant Kingdom4 Q
- Human Reproduction3 Q
- Biological Classification3 Q
- Cell Cycle and Cell Division3 Q
- Principles of Inheritance and Variation3 Q
- Structural Organisation in Animals2 Q
- Anatomy of Flowering Plants2 Q
- Chemical Coordination and Integration2 Q
- Biomolecules2 Q
- Locomotion and Movement2 Q
- Photosynthesis in Higher Plants2 Q
- Plant Growth and Development2 Q
- Neural Control and Coordination2 Q
- Body Fluids and Circulation2 Q
- Evolution2 Q
- Reproductive Health2 Q
- Respiration in Plants1 Q
- Excretory Products and Their Elimination1 Q
- Human Health and Disease1 Q
- Microbes in Human Welfare1 Q
- Organisms and Populations1 Q
- Biotechnology and Its Applications1 Q
- Breathing and Exchange of Gases1 Q
- Biotechnology: Principles and Processes1 Q
- Ecosystem1 Q
About this paper
How many questions from AIPMT 2014 are on this page?
159 questions (Physics 37, Chemistry 41, Biology 81). Questions that need a diagram we could not reproduce, or whose wording in the source was unclear, are left out.
Are these the original questions?
Yes. The questions and options are as set in the AIPMT 2014 paper, conducted by CBSE. The answer to every question was checked by the RankUp team, and the explanations are RankUp's own.
Is AIPMT 2014 useful for NEET 2027?
Yes. The NEET syllabus is built on the same NCERT books. 15 questions here are on topics NCERT has since dropped; they are listed separately so you can skip them.
More NEET and AIPMT papers
Practise thousands more questions chapter-wise in the RankUp app.
- NEET 2021
- NEET 2020
- NEET 2019
- NEET 2018
- NEET 2017
- NEET 2017 (Gujarati paper)
- NEET 2016 Phase 2
- NEET 2016 Phase 1
- AIPMT 2015
- NEET 2013
- AIPMT 2012 Mains
- AIPMT 2012 Prelims
- AIPMT 2011 Mains
- AIPMT 2011 Prelims
- AIPMT 2010 Mains
- AIPMT 2010 Prelims
- AIPMT 2009 Prelims
- AIPMT 2008 Prelims
- AIPMT 2007 Prelims
- AIPMT 2006 Prelims
- AIPMT 2005 Prelims
- All NEET PYQs
