NEET 2026 Re-exam Question PaperPhysics, Chemistry and Biology, with checked answers and solutions
By the RankUp team, founded by Dr. Deepak Sahu (MBBS Gold Medalist, NEET PG AIR 1731) · Updated
151 questions from the NEET 2026 Re-exam paper, conducted by NTA. Tap an option to check your answer and read why it is right. Each subject has a free PDF with the answer key and explanations.
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NEET 2026 Re-exam Physics questions
25 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2026 Re-exam
A photon and an electron, each of 20 eV energy, move in free space. The ratio of linear momentum of electron (pₑ) to that of photon (p_Ph), pₑ/p_Ph, is: [Take speed of light = 3 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹, charge of electron = −1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C and mass of electron = 9 × 10⁻³¹ kg]
Not quite — the answer is D.
E = 20 eV = 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁸ J. Photon: p = E/c = 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁸ / 3 × 10⁸ ≈ 1.07 × 10⁻²⁶ kg m s⁻¹. Electron: p = √(2mE) = √(2 × 9 × 10⁻³¹ × 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁸) = 2.4 × 10⁻²⁴ kg m s⁻¹. Ratio = 2.4 × 10⁻²⁴ / 1.067 × 10⁻²⁶ = 225; the fractional values invert the ratio.
Q2NEET 2026 Re-exam
Consider a long solenoid of length l and radius r. If n is the number of turns per unit length and μ₀ is the permeability of free space, the inductance of the solenoid is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Inside the solenoid B = μ₀nI; flux linkage = (nl)(μ₀nI)(πr²), so L = μ₀n²πr²l = μ₀n²Al. Dropping π (the area πr²) or adding a factor 2 gives the incorrect expressions.
Q3NEET 2026 Re-exam
The temperature of a metallic sphere of radius R is increased by a small amount ΔT. If the linear coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal is α, the approximate increase in the volume of the sphere is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
The volume coefficient is γ = 3α, so ΔV = 3α × (4/3)πR³ × ΔT = 4πR³αΔT. Forgetting the factor 3 (using α as the volume coefficient) would give (4/3)πR³αΔT, which is not offered.
Q4NEET 2026 Re-exam
Two planets P₁ and P₂ with equal mass have radii R₁ and R₂, respectively, where R₂ = R₁/2. The escape speeds of P₁ and P₂ are v₁ and v₂, respectively. Then v₂/v₁ is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
v_esc = √(2GM/R); with equal masses v ∝ 1/√R, so v₂/v₁ = √(R₁/R₂) = √2. Inverting the ratio gives 1/√2, and forgetting the square root gives 2.
Q5NEET 2026 Re-exam
An ac voltage V = 220 sin(2 × 10³ t) Volt is applied to a series LCR circuit. Then the current amplitude in this circuit is: (Given : L = 10 mH, C = 25 μF, R = 100 Ω )
Not quite — the answer is B.
ω = 2000 rad s⁻¹: X_L = ωL = 2000 × 0.010 = 20 Ω and X_C = 1/(ωC) = 1/(2000 × 25 × 10⁻⁶) = 20 Ω. They cancel (resonance), so Z = R = 100 Ω and I₀ = 220/100 = 2.2 A. Ignoring R or the reactances does not give this value.
Q6NEET 2026 Re-exam
In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas (γ = 5/3) decreases from 60 K to 50 K . The work done by the gas in the process is: (Take the universal gas constant as R = 8.3 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is D.
For an adiabatic process W = nR(T₁ − T₂)/(γ − 1) = 1 × 8.3 × 10 / (2/3) = 124.5 J, which equals the fall in internal energy (3/2)RΔT. Using nRΔT alone gives 83 J.
Q7NEET 2026 Re-exam
Consider a particle moving along a straight line, whose position as a function of time is given by s(t) = αt² − βt + γ, where α = 1 m s⁻², β = 6 m s⁻¹ and γ = 5 m. The average speed of the particle, in m s⁻¹ from t = 0 to t = 6 s is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
s = t² − 6t + 5 and v = 2t − 6, which reverses at t = 3 s. s(0) = 5 m, s(3) = −4 m, s(6) = 5 m, so the distance covered is 9 + 9 = 18 m and the average speed is 18/6 = 3 m s⁻¹. The net displacement is zero, which gives the average velocity, not the speed.
Q8NEET 2026 Re-exam
The following table presents the part of the electromagnetic spectrum and their corresponding major applications. Part of the electromagnetic spectrum: P. Microwave Q. UV rays R. Gamma rays S. Radio wave Applications: I. For purifying the water II. For warming the food III. For AM and FM communication systems IV. For treating the Cancer cells The correct option is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Microwaves heat food (microwave ovens), UV rays kill germs and are used in water purifiers, gamma rays are used in radiotherapy to destroy cancer cells, and radio waves carry AM and FM broadcasts.
Q9NEET 2026 Re-exam
An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules. Each of the molecules has three translational, three rotational and f number of vibrational modes. If the ratio of heat capacities C_P/C_V of the gas is 8/7, then the value of f is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Each translational and rotational mode contributes ½R and each vibrational mode contributes R (kinetic + potential) to C_V: C_V = (3 + f)R and C_P = (4 + f)R. Setting (4 + f)/(3 + f) = 8/7 gives 28 + 7f = 24 + 8f, so f = 4. Counting each vibration as only ½R would lead to f = 8, which is not offered.
Q10NEET 2026 Re-exam
An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium having a dielectric constant, εᵣ = 9, has the electric field, Eₓ = E₀ sin(kz − 2π × 10⁶ t) V m⁻¹ where E₀ is the amplitude and k is the wave vector. Among the following options, the incorrect choice is
Not quite — the answer is C.
v = c/√εᵣ = 3 × 10⁸/3 = 10⁸ m s⁻¹, and the phase (kz − ωt) means travel along +z, so those statements are correct. With f = 10⁶ Hz, λ = v/f = 100 m, not 300 m (300 m is the vacuum wavelength). B is along y with amplitude E₀/v, since E × B must point along +z, so that statement is also correct.
Q11NEET 2026 Re-exam
A particle of mass M moves along a horizontal x axis from x = 0 to x = L. The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as a function of x as μₖ(x) = μ₀ − αx, where μ₀, α are constants of appropriate dimensions, so that μₖ(L) = 0. The total work done by the frictional force during the motion is nμ₀MgL, where g is the acceleration due to gravity. The value of n is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
μₖ(L) = 0 gives α = μ₀/L. Work by friction = −∫₀ᴸ (μ₀ − αx)Mg dx = −Mg(μ₀L − αL²/2) = −μ₀MgL/2, i.e. magnitude ½μ₀MgL. Using the initial coefficient μ₀ throughout would give n = 1.
Q12NEET 2026 Re-exam
Consider a fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere with radius R and total charge +Q. A point charge −q (q ≪ Q) with mass m is released from rest at a distance of 3R from the centre of the charged sphere. When the point charge reaches the surface of the sphere, its speed is: (ε₀ is the permittivity of vacuum, neglect gravitational forces).
Not quite — the answer is D.
Loss of potential energy = (Qq/4πε₀)(1/R − 1/3R) = (Qq/4πε₀)(2/3R) = ½mv². So v² = 4Qq/(3 × 4πε₀mR) = Qq/(3πε₀mR). Using 1/R alone (as if starting from infinity) gives √(Qq/(2πε₀mR)), not offered, while dropping the factor 2 from ½mv² gives the 4πε₀ form.
Q13NEET 2026 Re-exam
A car travels on a circular racetrack of radius 50 m , which is banked at an angle θ. If the car travels at a speed 10 m s⁻¹, then the wear and tear on its tyres is minimum. Taking the acceleration due to gravity to be 10 m s⁻², the value of θ is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Tyre wear is least when no friction is needed, i.e. at the optimum banking speed, for which tan θ = v²/(rg) = 100/(50 × 10) = 1/5. Using rg/v² inverts the ratio.
Q14NEET 2026 Re-exam
A solid sphere A of radius R and mass M is attached at a point to a smaller solid sphere B of radius r < R and mass m < M. Assume that the line joining their centres lies along the horizontal. The moment of inertia of the system calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of A is I_A and that about a vertical axis passing through the centre of B is I_B. The difference I_A − I_B is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The centres are R + r apart. I_A = (2/5)MR² + (2/5)mr² + m(R + r)² and I_B = (2/5)MR² + M(R + r)² + (2/5)mr², so I_A − I_B = (m − M)(R + r)², which is negative since m < M. The (M − m) form has the sign reversed.
Q15NEET 2026 Re-exam
Consider that an electron is revolving in an excited state of Hydrogen atom with velocity √25.6 × 10⁵ m s⁻¹. The radius of the orbit is x × 10⁻⁹ m. The value of x is: [Take the mass of electron to be 9 × 10⁻³¹ kg, charge of electron = −1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C and 1/(4πε₀) = 9 × 10⁹ N m² C⁻²]
Not quite — the answer is A.
The Coulomb force supplies the centripetal force: mv²/r = ke²/r², so r = ke²/(mv²). Here v² = 25.6 × 10¹⁰ = 2.56 × 10¹¹ m² s⁻², ke² = 9 × 10⁹ × 2.56 × 10⁻³⁸ = 2.304 × 10⁻²⁸ and mv² = 9 × 10⁻³¹ × 2.56 × 10¹¹ = 2.304 × 10⁻¹⁹, giving r = 1.0 × 10⁻⁹ m, so x = 1.
Q16NEET 2026 Re-exam
The mean free path of molecules in an ideal gas A is half that of another ideal gas B. The diameter of the spherical molecules of gas A is twice the diameter of the molecules of B. If number densities of the gases A and B are n_A and n_B, respectively, the correct option is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
λ = 1/(√2 π d² n), so λ_A/λ_B = (d_B² n_B)/(d_A² n_A) = n_B/(4n_A). Setting this equal to 1/2 gives n_A = n_B/2. Ignoring the d² dependence would wrongly give n_A = 2n_B.
Q17NEET 2026 Re-exam
A cylindrical cork of uniform density floats in a liquid of density ρ₁. If the cork is depressed slightly and released, it oscillates harmonically with time period T. If the same cork floats in another liquid of density ρ₂, then the similar oscillation has time period 2T. The value of ρ₂/ρ₁ is:
Not quite — the answer is A.
For a floating cylinder of cross-section A, the restoring force per unit depression is ρAg, so T = 2π√(m/(ρAg)) ∝ 1/√ρ. Doubling T requires ρ₂ = ρ₁/4. Taking T ∝ √ρ would give 4.
Q18NEET 2026 Re-exam
For sound waves, if the number of nodes for the 5ᵗʰ harmonic of an open-ended pipe is n and that for the 9ᵗʰ harmonic of the same pipe with one of its ends closed is m, the ratio n/m is
Not quite — the answer is D.
In an open pipe the pᵗʰ harmonic has antinodes at both ends and p displacement nodes, so n = 5. In a closed pipe the (2k − 1)ᵗʰ harmonic has k nodes (including the closed end); the 9ᵗʰ harmonic has k = 5, so m = 5. Hence n/m = 1; taking the ratio of harmonic numbers gives 5/9.
Q19NEET 2026 Re-exam
Consider the following nuclear reaction ²³⁸U → ²³⁴Th + ⁴He Take masses of ²³⁸U, ²³⁴Th and ⁴He as 238.050 u, 234.043 u and 4.003 u , respectively. The Q value for the reaction, in keV, is: [Given: 1 u = 931.5 MeV c⁻²]
Not quite — the answer is B.
Mass defect Δm = 238.050 − (234.043 + 4.003) = 0.004 u. Q = 0.004 × 931.5 MeV = 3.726 MeV = 3726 keV. Rounding 931.5 to 935 or 932 gives the nearby distractors.
Q20NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following measurements require 'index correction'?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Index correction is applied on an optical bench, where the distance read between the index marks on the uprights differs from the actual distance between the lens and the needle; it is found with a rod of known length. The resonance tube needs an end correction and the metre bridge an end correction, not an index correction.
Q21NEET 2026 Re-exam
In a solar system, the time-period of revolution of a planet tracing a circular orbit of radius R is proportional to:
Not quite — the answer is C.
For a circular orbit GMm/R² = m(2π/T)²R, so T² = 4π²R³/(GM) and T ∝ R^(3/2) (Kepler's third law). R³ is proportional to T², not T.
Q22NEET 2026 Re-exam
Consider that σₛ, k_B, b represents Stefan-Boltzmann constant, Boltzmann constant and Wien's displacement law constant, respectively. The dimension of σₛ k_B⁻¹ b is
Not quite — the answer is B.
σ (W m⁻² K⁻⁴) = [M T⁻³ K⁻⁴]; k_B (J K⁻¹) = [M L² T⁻² K⁻¹]; b (m K) = [L K]. σ k_B⁻¹ b = [M T⁻³ K⁻⁴][M⁻¹ L⁻² T² K][L K] = [L⁻¹ T⁻¹ K⁻²]. Forgetting the K in Wien's constant would leave K⁻³.
Q23NEET 2026 Re-exam
A ray of light with wavelength λ is incident on three different photoelectric cells namely 1,2 and 3 . The threshold wavelength of these photoelectric cells are λ₁, λ₂, and λ₃, respectively and the magnitude of stopping potentials of these cells are V₁, V₂ and V₃, respectively. The relation between λ and threshold wavelengths are λ₁ < λ, λ₂ > λ and λ₃ ≫ λ. The correct option is:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Emission occurs only if λ is shorter than the threshold wavelength. For cell 1 (λ₁ < λ) there is no emission, so V₁ = 0. eV = hc/λ − hc/λ₀ grows as the threshold λ₀ increases, so V₃ (λ₃ ≫ λ) exceeds V₂. Treating a larger threshold wavelength as a larger work function reverses this.
Q24NEET 2026 Re-exam
Two infinitely long parallel conducting wires A and B carry currents I and 2I, respectively, in the same direction. The wire A has uniform mass per unit length λ and lies on an insulated floor. The wire B is kept fixed at a height h above the floor. The minimum magnitude of h so that the wire A does not rise from the floor is: [g is the acceleration due to gravity and μ₀ is the permeability of free space.]
Not quite — the answer is C.
Parallel currents attract, so B pulls A upward with force per unit length μ₀(I)(2I)/(2πh) = μ₀I²/(πh). A stays on the floor if this does not exceed its weight per unit length λg, i.e. h ≥ μ₀I²/(πλg). Forgetting the factor 2 in the current 2I gives μ₀I²/(2πλg).
Q25NEET 2026 Re-exam
Consider a spring-mass simple harmonic oscillator in one dimension. The mass of the particle is m kg and the spring constant is k N m⁻¹. At a given instant, the extension of the spring is x meter and the speed of the particle is v m s⁻¹. On the x − v plane, if the graph of v as a function of x is a circle, then the correct option is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Energy conservation gives ½kx² + ½mv² = E, an ellipse in the x–v plane: x²/(2E/k) + v²/(2E/m) = 1. It becomes a circle only when the two semi-axes are equal, i.e. k = m numerically (ω = 1 rad s⁻¹).
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2026 Re-exam Physics
- Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter2 Q
- Gravitation2 Q
- Electromagnetic Waves2 Q
- Kinetic Theory2 Q
- Oscillations2 Q
- Electromagnetic Induction1 Q
- Thermal Properties of Matter1 Q
- Alternating Current1 Q
- Thermodynamics1 Q
- Motion in a Straight Line1 Q
- Work, Energy and Power1 Q
- Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance1 Q
- Laws of Motion1 Q
- System of Particles and Rotational Motion1 Q
- Atoms1 Q
- Waves1 Q
- Nuclei1 Q
- Ray Optics and Optical Instruments1 Q
- Units and Measurements1 Q
- Moving Charges and Magnetism1 Q
NEET 2026 Re-exam Chemistry questions
37 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2026 Re-exam
Consider the following reaction, and choose the correct option. Toluene (C₆H₅–CH₃) —(i) CrO₂Cl₂, CS₂; (ii) H₃O⁺→ P
Not quite — the answer is A.
The Etard reaction (chromyl chloride in CS₂, then hydrolysis) stops the oxidation of toluene at benzaldehyde, so P is benzaldehyde, which is also made by Rosenmund reduction of benzoyl chloride with H₂ over Pd/BaSO₄. Benzaldehyde is not acidic enough to release CO₂ from NaHCO₃, Friedel–Crafts acylation with CH₃COCl gives acetophenone instead, and the white precipitate with bromine water is a test for phenol.
Q2NEET 2026 Re-exam
The formula of tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is
Not quite — the answer is A.
The coordination sphere holds four NH₃, one H₂O and one Cl⁻ around Co³⁺, giving charge +3 − 1 = +2, so two chloride counter-ions are needed: [Co(NH₃)₄(H₂O)Cl]Cl₂. The formula with a single outer Cl⁻ would require cobalt in the +2 state, contradicting the (III) in the name.
Q3NEET 2026 Re-exam
The lanthanide ion having four unpaired electrons is (Given : Atomic numbers of Ce = 58, Nd = 60, Tb = 65 and Ho = 67)
Not quite — the answer is A.
Ln³⁺ ions have 4fⁿ configurations with n = Z − 57: Ce³⁺ 4f¹ has one unpaired electron, Nd³⁺ 4f³ has three, Tb³⁺ 4f⁸ has six, and Ho³⁺ 4f¹⁰ (ten electrons in seven f orbitals, three of them paired) has four. Only Ho³⁺ has four unpaired electrons; Tb³⁺ is the trap with six.
Q4NEET 2026 Re-exam
The green paramagnetic species formed by heating KMnO₄ at 513 K is
Not quite — the answer is B.
On heating to 513 K, 2KMnO₄ → K₂MnO₄ + MnO₂ + O₂. Manganate (MnO₄²⁻) is green and, with Mn(VI) having one unpaired d electron, paramagnetic. KO₂ is yellow and not a manganese product; Mn₃O₄ and MnO are not formed at this temperature.
Q5NEET 2026 Re-exam
One of the products formed in the following reaction is Cyclohexylmagnesium bromide (C₆H₁₁–MgBr) + cyclohexylamine (C₆H₁₁–NH₂) →
Not quite — the answer is A.
Grignard reagents are strong bases and are destroyed by any acidic N–H, O–H or S–H proton: C₆H₁₁MgBr + C₆H₁₁NH₂ → C₆H₁₂ + C₆H₁₁NHMgBr. The hydrocarbon cyclohexane is therefore formed; no new C–N or C–C bond is made, so the amine and bicyclohexyl products are traps.
Q6NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Heating NaCl with concentrated H₂SO₄ and MnO₂ results in oxidation of Mn . Statement-II : Heating NaI with concentrated H₂SO₄ and MnO₂ results in reduction of Mn . In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Not quite — the answer is A.
In both reactions MnO₂ (Mn +4) acts as the oxidant, converting the halide to Cl₂ or I₂ and itself becoming Mn²⁺ (MnSO₄). So manganese is reduced in both cases: Statement I, which claims oxidation of Mn, is false and Statement II is true.
Q7NEET 2026 Re-exam
Among the following options, the correct trend in the electron gain enthalpy is
Not quite — the answer is D.
Chlorine has the most negative electron gain enthalpy of the halogens; fluorine's is less negative than chlorine's because the added electron enters the very compact 2p shell and suffers strong repulsion. After Cl the values become less negative down the group, giving Cl > F > Br > I (in magnitude). The simple top-to-bottom order F > Cl > Br > I ignores this anomaly.
Q8NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement-I : [Fe(ox)₃]³⁻ is chiral. Statement-II : trans-[Cr(H₂O)₂(ox)₂]⁻ is chiral. (Given : oxH₂ = HOOC–COOH) In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is D.
A tris(chelate) octahedral complex such as [Fe(ox)₃]³⁻ has no mirror plane and exists as Δ and Λ enantiomers, so it is chiral. In the trans bis(oxalato) complex the two oxalates lie in one plane, which is a mirror plane, so it is achiral; only the cis isomer is optically active.
Q9NEET 2026 Re-exam
The correct statement about peptides and proteins is
Not quite — the answer is D.
In the β-pleated sheet, neighbouring peptide chains lie side by side and are linked by hydrogen bonds between chains (intermolecular). The α-helix is a right-handed helix, not left-handed; the arrangement of several subunits is quaternary, not tertiary, structure; and many single-chain proteins with only tertiary structure are fully active.
Q10NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement-I : Oxidation of p-nitrotoluene with acidic KMnO₄ gives an acid that is stronger than benzoic acid. Statement-II : Reduction of p-nitrotoluene with Sn/HCl followed by neutralization gives an amine that is more basic than aniline. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Not quite — the answer is B.
Oxidation gives p-nitrobenzoic acid; the electron-withdrawing NO₂ group stabilises the carboxylate, so it is stronger than benzoic acid. Reduction gives p-toluidine; the electron-donating CH₃ group raises electron density on nitrogen, so it is more basic than aniline. Both statements are true.
Q11NEET 2026 Re-exam
Identify the reactions which give aniline as the major product. A. C₆H₅–CN —LiAlH₄→ B. C₆H₅–CONH₂ —KOH, Br₂→ C. C₆H₅–NO₂ —NaBH₄→ D. C₆H₅–NH–CO–CH₃ —HCl, H₂O, Δ→ Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Hofmann bromamide degradation of benzamide removes the carbonyl carbon and gives aniline, and acid hydrolysis of acetanilide cleaves the amide to aniline (as its salt, freed on neutralisation). LiAlH₄ reduces benzonitrile to benzylamine (C₆H₅CH₂NH₂), not aniline, and NaBH₄ does not reduce an aromatic nitro group.
Q12NEET 2026 Re-exam
Two moles of an ideal gas undergo free expansion from 10 L to 100 L at 300 K . The values of ΔS(system) and ΔS(surroundings) are (R is universal gas constant)
Not quite — the answer is A.
Entropy is a state function, so ΔS(system) equals that of a reversible isothermal path: nR ln(V₂/V₁) = 2R ln 10 = 2 × 2.303R = 4.606R. In free expansion no heat is exchanged with the surroundings, so ΔS(surroundings) = 0. Assigning −4.606R to the surroundings treats the irreversible process as if it were reversible.
Q13NEET 2026 Re-exam
The complex which has facial and meridional isomers is (Given : py = pyridine and en = H₂N–CH₂–CH₂–NH₂)
Not quite — the answer is B.
Fac–mer isomerism arises in octahedral complexes of type MA₃B₃: [Cr(py)₃Cl₃] can have the three Cl on one face (fac) or along a meridian (mer). The MA₄B₂ and M(AA)₂B₂ types show cis–trans isomerism instead, and the homoleptic [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺ has no geometrical isomers.
Q14NEET 2026 Re-exam
The numbers 17.0145 and 21.0235 were rounded to three figures after the decimal point. The resulting numbers, respectively, are
Not quite — the answer is D.
When the digit dropped is exactly 5, the preceding digit is left unchanged if it is even and raised by one if it is odd. In 17.0145 the preceding digit 4 is even, giving 17.014; in 21.0235 the preceding 3 is odd, giving 21.024. Always rounding 5 upward gives 17.015, which ignores this rule.
Q15NEET 2026 Re-exam
The amount of carbon dioxide evolved upon complete combustion of 116 g of n-butane is (Given: atomic mass in amu H = 1, C = 12 and O = 16)
Not quite — the answer is B.
Molar mass of C₄H₁₀ = 58 g mol⁻¹, so 116 g = 2 mol. Each mole gives 4 mol CO₂ (2C₄H₁₀ + 13O₂ → 8CO₂ + 10H₂O), so 8 mol × 44 g mol⁻¹ = 352 g. Taking only 4 mol of CO₂ (176 g) forgets that 2 mol of butane were burnt.
Q16NEET 2026 Re-exam
The following carbocation is stabilized by the interaction of the empty p orbital with C₆H₅–C⁺H–CH₃
Not quite — the answer is B.
The 1-phenylethyl cation is stabilised by resonance, the overlap of the empty p orbital with the filled π orbitals of the benzene ring, and by hyperconjugation, its overlap with filled C–H σ orbitals of the methyl group. An empty orbital can only be stabilised by donation from filled orbitals; interaction with empty σ* or π* orbitals gives no stabilisation.
Q17NEET 2026 Re-exam
A 1 : 3 electrolyte in an aqueous solution is
Not quite — the answer is D.
[Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ dissociates into one [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ and three Cl⁻, a 1 : 3 electrolyte. [CoCl(NH₃)₅]Cl₂ gives 1 : 2, [CoCl₂(NH₃)₄]Cl gives 1 : 1, and [Co(NH₃)₃(NO₂)₃] is a non-electrolyte.
Q18NEET 2026 Re-exam
The standard electrode potential (E°) for the half-cell reaction Fe³⁺ + e⁻ → Fe²⁺ at 298 K is (Given : E°(Fe³⁺/Fe) = −0.04 V and E°(Fe²⁺/Fe) = −0.44 V at 298 K )
Not quite — the answer is C.
Potentials are not additive but ΔG° values are. Fe³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Fe: ΔG° = −3F(−0.04) = +0.12F. Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Fe: ΔG° = −2F(−0.44) = +0.88F. Subtracting, Fe³⁺ + e⁻ → Fe²⁺ has ΔG° = 0.12F − 0.88F = −0.76F, so E° = +0.76 V. Simply subtracting the two potentials gives +0.40 V, which ignores the different numbers of electrons.
Q19NEET 2026 Re-exam
In potash alum, the ratio of K⁺ and SO₄²⁻ ions is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Potash alum is K₂SO₄·Al₂(SO₄)₃·24H₂O, i.e. KAl(SO₄)₂·12H₂O; as a double salt it dissociates completely into K⁺, Al³⁺ and SO₄²⁻ ions. Per formula unit KAl(SO₄)₂ there is one K⁺ for two SO₄²⁻, a 1 : 2 ratio. The 2 : 1 ratio comes from looking at K₂SO₄ alone.
Q20NEET 2026 Re-exam
Consider the following statements about the solutions formed by mixing two liquids. A. An ideal solution thus formed obeys Raoult's law throughout the composition range. B. Mixture of chloroform and acetone shows negative deviation from Raoult's law. C. Mixture of aniline and phenol shows positive deviation from Raoult's law. Choose the correct statements from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
An ideal solution by definition obeys Raoult's law at every composition. Chloroform and acetone form a C–H···O hydrogen bond, so the mixture shows negative deviation. Aniline and phenol also form strong N···H–O hydrogen bonds with each other, so they show negative, not positive, deviation; the statement about them is false.
Q21NEET 2026 Re-exam
For a salt XY, which is a strong electrolyte, the plot of Λm versus √c has a slope of −90.0 S cm² mol⁻³ᐟ² L¹ᐟ² at 298 K . At 0.01 M concentration of XY, the value of Λm is 145.0 S cm² mol⁻¹. The limiting molar conductivity of Y⁻ ion (λ°Y⁻, in S cm² mol⁻¹) at 298 K will be (Given : λ°X⁺ = 74.0 S cm² mol⁻¹ )
Not quite — the answer is B.
Kohlrausch: Λm = Λ°m − A√c. With √0.01 = 0.1, 145.0 = Λ°m − 90.0 × 0.1, so Λ°m = 154.0 S cm² mol⁻¹. Then λ°Y⁻ = 154.0 − 74.0 = 80.0 S cm² mol⁻¹. Subtracting 74.0 directly from 145.0 (giving about 71) forgets to extrapolate to infinite dilution.
Q22NEET 2026 Re-exam
According to crystal field theory, the correct order of ligands with respect to their decreasing order of field strength is
Not quite — the answer is B.
The spectrochemical series runs I⁻ < Br⁻ < … < Cl⁻ < … < H₂O < … < NH₃ < en < CN⁻ < CO. Hence in decreasing field strength CO > NH₃ > H₂O > Cl⁻. Placing H₂O above NH₃ is the common slip; ammonia is the stronger field ligand.
Q23NEET 2026 Re-exam
In an acidic medium, 10 mL of 0.25 M oxalic acid is titrated with KMnO₄ solution. If the volume of KMnO₄ solution required to reach end point is 10 mL , the strength of the KMnO₄ solution is
Not quite — the answer is B.
2MnO₄⁻ + 5C₂O₄²⁻ + 16H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 10CO₂ + 8H₂O. Oxalic acid = 10 × 0.25 = 2.5 mmol, so MnO₄⁻ needed = 2.5 × 2/5 = 1.0 mmol in 10 mL, i.e. 0.10 M. Assuming 1 : 1 stoichiometry would wrongly give 0.25 M.
Q24NEET 2026 Re-exam
The correct statement is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Boron has only the 2s and three 2p orbitals in its valence shell, so it can form at most four bonds (as in BF₄⁻). Aluminium has 3s, 3p and vacant 3d orbitals (more than four, allowing species like [AlF₆]³⁻), and beryllium has four valence orbitals (2s and three 2p), not three.
Q25NEET 2026 Re-exam
Among the following, the compound having conjugated double bonds is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Conjugated double bonds alternate with a single bond, C=C–C=C. In hepta-1,3-diene the double bonds start at C-1 and C-3 and are separated by one single bond. In the 1,4-, 1,5- and 1,6-dienes the double bonds are separated by one or more sp³ carbons, so they are isolated.
Q26NEET 2026 Re-exam
The correct order of solubility of the given salts in water at 298 K is Salt — Ksp at 298 K AgBr — 5.0 × 10⁻¹³ Zn(OH)₂ — 1.0 × 10⁻¹⁵ Hg₂Cl₂ — 1.3 × 10⁻¹⁸
Not quite — the answer is A.
AgBr: s = √(5.0 × 10⁻¹³) ≈ 7.1 × 10⁻⁷ M. Zn(OH)₂: 4s³ = 1.0 × 10⁻¹⁵, s ≈ 6.3 × 10⁻⁶ M. Hg₂Cl₂ (Hg₂²⁺ + 2Cl⁻): 4s³ = 1.3 × 10⁻¹⁸, s ≈ 6.9 × 10⁻⁷ M. So Zn(OH)₂ > AgBr > Hg₂Cl₂; ranking by Ksp directly would wrongly put AgBr first.
Q27NEET 2026 Re-exam
The correct decreasing order of oxidation state of the underlined atom in each molecule is (the underlined atom is shown in brackets after each formula)
Not quite — the answer is C.
N in N₂O₅ is +5, Al in Al₂O₃ is +3 and S in H₂S is −2, a strictly decreasing sequence. The others fail: P in P₄O₆ is +3 but Cl in Cl₂O₇ is +7; P in P₄O₁₀ is +5 but S in SO₃ is +6; Pb in PbO₂ is +4 but S in SO₃ is +6.
Q28NEET 2026 Re-exam
Assertion A: For an ideal solution formed by mixing liquids P and Q, ΔmixH = 0 and ΔmixV = 0 Reason R: No interactions occur between P and Q In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Not quite — the answer is D.
For an ideal solution there is no heat change or volume change on mixing, so the assertion is true. The reason is false: P–Q interactions do exist; they are simply of the same strength as the P–P and Q–Q interactions they replace, which is why ΔmixH = 0.
Q29NEET 2026 Re-exam
Among the species given below, the spin-only magnetic moment is highest for (Given: Atomic number of Ti = 22, Mn = 25, Fe = 26 and Co = 27)
Not quite — the answer is B.
Ti³⁺ (d¹) has 1 unpaired electron. With strong-field CN⁻, Mn³⁺ (d⁴) is t₂g⁴ with 2 unpaired electrons (μ = √8 ≈ 2.83 BM) and Fe³⁺ (d⁵) is t₂g⁵ with 1. Co³⁺ (d⁶) with NH₃ is low-spin t₂g⁶ with none. The manganese complex is highest; treating Fe³⁺ as high-spin d⁵ is the trap.
Q30NEET 2026 Re-exam
A protein undergoes reversible thermal denaturation from its initial state N to denatured state D according to N ⇌ D. At 60°C, the concentrations of both N and D are equal at equilibrium, and the standard enthalpy change of denaturation is 666 kJ mol⁻¹. The standard entropy change ΔS° (in kJ K⁻¹ mol⁻¹) of the protein upon denaturation at 60°C is closest to
Not quite — the answer is B.
Equal concentrations mean K = 1, so ΔG° = −RT ln K = 0 and ΔS° = ΔH°/T = 666 kJ mol⁻¹ / 333 K = 2.0 kJ K⁻¹ mol⁻¹. Using 60 instead of 333 K gives 11.1, a common unit slip.
Q31NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Generally, 3d transition metals have high melting points. Reason R: Involvement of 3d-electrons in addition to 4s-electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Transition metals generally have high melting points because, besides the 4s electrons, unpaired (n−1)d electrons take part in metallic bonding, making it much stronger. So both statements are true and the reason directly explains the assertion.
Q32NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy of O is lower than that of N and F . Reason R: The loss of an electron from O leads to stable half-filled p orbital In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Oxygen (2p⁴) has one doubly occupied 2p orbital; removing one of the paired electrons relieves repulsion and leaves O⁺ with the stable half-filled 2p³ configuration, so its first ionization enthalpy is lower than that of N (2p³, already half-filled) and of F (higher nuclear charge). Both statements are true and the reason explains the assertion.
Q33NEET 2026 Re-exam
Consider the following reaction sequences and choose the correct option. Ph–C≡C–Me —H₂, Pd/C (Lindlar's Catalyst)→ K —HBr→ M Ph–C≡C–Me —Na/liq. NH₃→ L —HBr, benzoyl peroxide→ N
Not quite — the answer is B.
Lindlar hydrogenation gives cis-1-phenylpropene (K) and Na/liquid NH₃ gives trans-1-phenylpropene (L), so K and L are geometrical isomers. Ionic HBr addition to K goes through the benzylic cation to give PhCHBrCH₂CH₃ (M), while peroxide (radical) addition to L gives PhCH₂CHBrCH₃ (N) via the benzylic radical; M and N differ in the position of Br, so they are position isomers, not stereoisomers.
Q34NEET 2026 Re-exam
The highest occupied molecular orbital for Ne₂ is
Not quite — the answer is A.
Ne₂ would have 20 electrons, filling σ1s, σ*1s, σ2s, σ*2s, σ2p, π2p, π*2p and finally σ*2p. The last filled orbital, σ*2p, is the HOMO (and the bond order is zero). π*2p is the HOMO for O₂ and F₂, not Ne₂.
Q35NEET 2026 Re-exam
Match the species in List-I with their geometry in List-II. List-I: A. PCl₅ B. BrF₅ C. BF₄⁻ D. [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ List-II: I. Tetrahedral II. Square Planar III. Trigonal bipyramidal IV. Square pyramidal Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
PCl₅ (5 bond pairs) is trigonal bipyramidal; BrF₅ (5 bond pairs + 1 lone pair) is square pyramidal; BF₄⁻ (sp³) is tetrahedral; and [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ (dsp², strong-field CN⁻ pairs the d⁸ electrons) is square planar.
Q36NEET 2026 Re-exam
Match the vitamins in List I with their sources in List II List I: A. vitamin A B. vitamin B₁₂ C. vitamin E D. vitamin K List II: I. meat II. sunflower oil III. green leafy vegetables IV. carrots Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Carrots supply β-carotene, the precursor of vitamin A; vitamin B₁₂ comes from animal foods such as meat; vitamin E is abundant in vegetable oils like sunflower oil; and vitamin K is found in green leafy vegetables.
Q37NEET 2026 Re-exam
For the following reaction sequence, choose the correct option Benzene —(i) CH₃COCl, AlCl₃; (ii) NaOCl→ P + Q
Not quite — the answer is D.
Friedel–Crafts acylation gives acetophenone, a methyl ketone, which undergoes the haloform reaction with NaOCl to give sodium benzoate and chloroform. Sodium benzoate gives benzoic acid on acidification, and chloroform is slowly oxidised by air in light to the poisonous gas phosgene (COCl₂). Chloroform is neither a carbonyl compound, an alcohol nor aromatic.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2026 Re-exam Chemistry
- Coordination Compounds7 Q
- The d- and f-Block Elements3 Q
- Amines3 Q
- Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids2 Q
- Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties2 Q
- Biomolecules2 Q
- Thermodynamics2 Q
- Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry2 Q
- Electrochemistry2 Q
- Solutions2 Q
- Redox Reactions2 Q
- Hydrocarbons2 Q
- Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure2 Q
- Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques1 Q
- Equilibrium1 Q
NEET 2026 Re-exam Biology questions
89 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The class name Reptilia refers to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion. Statement II: All organisms belonging to Reptilia have three chambered heart. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is D.
The name Reptilia comes from the creeping or crawling locomotion of these animals, so Statement I is true. Most reptiles have a three-chambered heart, but crocodiles have a four-chambered heart, so the claim that all reptiles have three chambers is false.
Q2NEET 2026 Re-exam
How many turns of Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Each turn of the Calvin cycle fixes one CO₂, and one glucose has six carbons, so six turns make one glucose. Three glucose molecules need 3 × 6 = 18 turns; 6 turns would give only one glucose.
Q3NEET 2026 Re-exam
Photorespiration reaction catalyzed by RuBisCo is shown below: RuBP + O₂ → 3-Phosphoglycerate + X. Identify "X" from the given options:
Not quite — the answer is C.
When RuBisCo acts as an oxygenase, RuBP combines with O₂ to give one molecule of 3-phosphoglycerate and one molecule of 2-phosphoglycolate. Phosphoenolpyruvate, oxaloacetate and malate belong to the C₄ pathway, not to the oxygenation of RuBP.
Q4NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia. Statement II: In gymnosperms, seeds are not covered. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
In gymnosperms the male and female gametophytes do not lead an independent free-living life; they stay within the sporangia retained on the sporophyte. The ovules are not enclosed in an ovary, so the seeds remain naked. Both statements are therefore true.
Q5NEET 2026 Re-exam
How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Glycolysis splits one glucose molecule into two molecules of pyruvic acid. So 206 glucose give 206 × 2 = 412 pyruvic acid; 206 would wrongly assume one pyruvate per glucose.
Q6NEET 2026 Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I A. Fusion of protoplasms between gametes B. Fusion of two nuclei C. Generation of haploid spores List-II I. Meiosis II. Plasmogamy III. Karyogamy Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
In fungal sexual reproduction, fusion of the protoplasms of two gametes is plasmogamy, fusion of the two nuclei is karyogamy, and meiosis in the zygote then produces haploid spores. Swapping plasmogamy and karyogamy is the usual trap.
Q7NEET 2026 Re-exam
Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses ____.
Not quite — the answer is B.
The inner mitochondrial membrane surrounds the inner compartment called the matrix, which contains enzymes, a circular DNA and 70S ribosomes. Cytosol lies outside the mitochondrion, and aqueous humor and mucus are not cell organelle contents.
Q8NEET 2026 Re-exam
Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of ____.
Not quite — the answer is B.
Phyllotaxy is the pattern in which leaves are arranged on the stem or branch, such as alternate, opposite or whorled. The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is called inflorescence, not phyllotaxy.
Q9NEET 2026 Re-exam
Mad cow disease is caused by ____
Not quite — the answer is B.
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease) is caused by prions, which are abnormally folded proteins. Viroids are free RNA molecules that cause plant diseases such as potato spindle tuber, not this disease.
Q10NEET 2026 Re-exam
Cell theory was formulated by ____
Not quite — the answer is B.
Matthias Schleiden (plants) and Theodor Schwann (animals) together formulated the cell theory. Leeuwenhoek first saw live cells, Robert Brown discovered the nucleus, and Singer and Nicolson proposed the fluid mosaic model of the membrane.
Q11NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation prior to flowering in cabbage?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Gibberellins cause bolting, the elongation of internodes just before flowering in rosette plants such as cabbage and beet. Abscisic acid is a growth inhibitor and ethephon releases ethylene, so neither causes this elongation.
Q12NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which pigment has absorption peak at 700 nm in the photosynthetic reaction centre PS I (P700)?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The reaction centre of both photosystems is a special chlorophyll a molecule; in PS I it absorbs maximally at 700 nm and is called P700. Chlorophyll b, carotenoids and xanthophylls are accessory pigments of the antenna, not the reaction centre.
Q13NEET 2026 Re-exam
Sphenopsida class belongs to ____.
Not quite — the answer is A.
Pteridophytes are divided into four classes: Psilopsida, Lycopsida, Sphenopsida (for example Equisetum) and Pteropsida. Sphenopsida is therefore a pteridophyte class and not a group of bryophytes or seed plants.
Q14NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans?
Not quite — the answer is D.
From the hip downwards the thigh bone femur comes first, the knee cap patella covers the knee joint, then come the tibia (with fibula) of the leg and finally the tarsals of the ankle. Placing the patella after the tibia ignores that it sits at the knee, between femur and tibia.
Q15NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as herbicide?
Not quite — the answer is B.
2,4-D (2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) is a synthetic auxin widely used to kill dicotyledonous weeds while sparing monocot crops. Gibberellin, kinetin and abscisic acid are not used as weedicides.
Q16NEET 2026 Re-exam
Genus represents ____.
Not quite — the answer is D.
A genus is a group of related species that share more characters with each other than with species of other genera, for example Panthera. A group of related families is an order, not a genus.
Q17NEET 2026 Re-exam
The plastid that stores xanthophyll is known as ____.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Chromoplasts contain fat-soluble carotenoid pigments such as carotene and xanthophyll, giving yellow, orange or red colours. Amyloplasts and aleuroplasts are colourless leucoplasts storing starch and proteins respectively.
Q18NEET 2026 Re-exam
In water, frogs respire using ____.
Not quite — the answer is B.
When in water, the frog carries out cutaneous respiration, with dissolved oxygen diffusing through its moist skin. Lungs and the buccal cavity are used for respiration on land; frogs have no tracheal system.
Q19NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The fundamental chordate features are a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, paired pharyngeal gill slits and a post-anal tail. Absence of gills is therefore not a chordate characteristic, since pharyngeal gill slits are present at least in the embryo.
Q20NEET 2026 Re-exam
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum ____.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Smooth ER lacks ribosomes and is the major site of lipid synthesis, including steroidal hormones in animal cells. Ribosomes on the surface and active protein synthesis describe rough ER.
Q21NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells? (a) Ribosomes are made of 50 S and 30 S subunits (b) They can have plasmids (c) They contain mesosome (d) They have peroxisomes Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Prokaryotes have 70S ribosomes made of 50S and 30S subunits, often carry plasmids, and have mesosomes formed by infoldings of the plasma membrane. Peroxisomes are membrane-bound organelles found only in eukaryotic cells, so the combinations containing them are wrong.
Q22NEET 2026 Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I A. Cristae B. Cisternae C. Thylakoids D. Phospholipid List-II I. Flat membrane sacs in stroma of chloroplast II. Infoldings in mitochondria III. Cell membrane IV. Disc shaped sacs in the Golgi apparatus Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Cristae are infoldings of the inner mitochondrial membrane, cisternae are the flattened disc-shaped sacs of the Golgi apparatus, thylakoids are flat membranous sacs in the chloroplast stroma, and phospholipids form the bilayer of the cell membrane. Linking thylakoids to the cell membrane is the main trap.
Q23NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following statements related to pituitary gland are correct? (a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis (b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone (c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone (d) It does not secrete prolactin Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The pituitary is anatomically divided into the adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis; the pars distalis secretes FSH (and prolactin), and the pars intermedia secretes MSH. The claim that it does not secrete prolactin is false, so the first three statements are the correct ones.
Q24NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct? (a) Do not occur in C₃ plants (b) CO₂ is consumed and O₂ is generated (c) Phosphoglycolate is formed (d) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
In photorespiration RuBisCo binds O₂, forming phosphoglycolate, and the pathway makes neither ATP nor NADPH. It occurs mainly in C₃ plants (not in C₄ plants), and O₂ is consumed while CO₂ is released, so the other two statements are reversed and wrong.
Q25NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Not quite — the answer is A.
During coagulation, thrombin converts the inactive plasma protein fibrinogen into fibrin threads, which form the clot that traps blood cells. Saying fibrinogen is produced from fibrin reverses this conversion and is therefore the incorrect statement.
Q26NEET 2026 Re-exam
Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order. (a) Genus (b) Class (c) Order (d) Phylum (e) Family (f) Kingdom (g) Species Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
The taxonomic hierarchy from the lowest rank upward is species, genus, family, order, class, phylum and kingdom. Only the sequence starting with species and ending with kingdom, passing through genus, family, order, class and phylum in that order, is correct.
Q27NEET 2026 Re-exam
Select the correct sequence of experiments that led to a gradual understanding of photosynthesis in green plants.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Priestley (1770) first showed the role of air with a candle and mouse in a bell jar; Ingenhousz then showed that green parts release oxygen in sunlight; Sachs (1854) showed glucose is produced and stored as starch; and Engelmann later related light absorption by chlorophyll a and b to photosynthesis. Sequences beginning with glucose or spectra skip the earliest bell-jar experiments.
Q28NEET 2026 Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I A. Starch B. Antibody C. Concanavalin A D. Glut-4 List-II I. Fights infection II. Energy storage III. Glucose transport IV. Lectin Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Starch is the storage polysaccharide of plants, antibodies fight infection, concanavalin A is a lectin, and GLUT-4 is a membrane protein that transports glucose into cells. Swapping the lectin and the glucose transporter is the main distractor.
Q29NEET 2026 Re-exam
The number of vertebrae in a human is ____.
Not quite — the answer is D.
The adult human vertebral column is made of 26 serially arranged vertebrae (7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, one sacrum and one coccyx). The number 206 is the total number of bones in the skeleton, while 7 and 12 are only the cervical and thoracic counts.
Q30NEET 2026 Re-exam
Endomembrane system includes ____.
Not quite — the answer is B.
The endomembrane system consists of the ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles, whose functions are coordinated. Mitochondria, chloroplasts and peroxisomes work independently and are not part of it, so any set containing them is wrong.
Q31NEET 2026 Re-exam
Length of the stem at time 0 is 20 cm. The arithmetic growth rate is 30 cm per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the 7th day?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Arithmetic growth follows Lt = L0 + rt, so Lt = 20 + 30 × 7 = 20 + 210 = 230 cm. The value 50 cm is the length after only one day.
Q32NEET 2026 Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I A. Spherical B. Rod C. Comma D. Spirillum List-II I. Vibrio II. Cocci III. Spirilla IV. Bacilli Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Spherical bacteria are cocci, rod-shaped ones are bacilli, comma-shaped ones are vibrio and spiral ones are spirilla. Matching rods to vibrio confuses the straight rod shape with the curved comma shape.
Q33NEET 2026 Re-exam
The number of action potentials generated by sino-atrial node (SAN) in a healthy human is ____ per minute.
Not quite — the answer is C.
The SA node is the pacemaker and normally generates 70–75 action potentials per minute, which sets the heart rate of about 72 beats per minute. Values such as 120–140 are far above the resting rate of a healthy adult.
Q34NEET 2026 Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I A. Family B. Genus C. Class D. Phylum E. Order List-II I. Sapindales II. Dicotyledonae III. Anacardiaceae IV. Angiospermae V. Mangifera Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
For mango, the family is Anacardiaceae, genus Mangifera, class Dicotyledonae, division (phylum) Angiospermae and order Sapindales. The suffix -aceae marks a family and -ales an order, which rules out swapping these two.
Q35NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following is not a part of human central neural system?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The brain is covered by three cranial meninges, the outer dura mater, the middle arachnoid and the inner pia mater. The pericardium is the double membrane around the heart and has nothing to do with the neural system.
Q36NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I. Statement II: Meiosis I resembles mitosis. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is D.
By diakinesis, the last stage of prophase I, chromosomes are fully condensed and the spindle is assembled, so Statement I is true. Meiosis I is a reductional division with pairing and crossing over; it is meiosis II that resembles a normal mitosis, so Statement II is false.
Q37NEET 2026 Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I A. Marginal placentation B. Axile placentation C. Parietal placentation D. Free central placentation List-II I. Argemone II. Tomato III. Primrose IV. Pea Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Pea has marginal placentation, tomato (and China rose, lemon) axile, Argemone and mustard parietal, and Dianthus and primrose free central placentation. Assigning primrose to parietal placentation is the common error.
Q38NEET 2026 Re-exam
Symbiotic associations between fungi and algae are called ____.
Not quite — the answer is B.
Lichens are mutualistic associations between algae (phycobiont) and fungi (mycobiont). Mycorrhizae are associations of fungi with roots of higher plants, not with algae.
Q39NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following is not a prokaryote?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Fungi are eukaryotes with a membrane-bound nucleus and organelles. Bacteria, blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) and mycoplasma all belong to the prokaryotic Monera.
Q40NEET 2026 Re-exam
Arrange the following elements in descending order of their contribution to percentage weight of the human body. (a) Oxygen (b) Carbon (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
By weight the human body is about 65% oxygen, 18.5% carbon, 9.5% hydrogen and 3.3% nitrogen, so the order is oxygen > carbon > hydrogen > nitrogen. Putting carbon first is the trap: carbon dominates the dry organic matter, but oxygen leads by weight because the body is mostly water.
Q41NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
Not quite — the answer is C.
In the islets of Langerhans, α-cells secrete glucagon and β-cells secrete insulin; glucagon raises blood glucose by stimulating glycogenolysis. The statement that α-cells secrete insulin is therefore the incorrect one.
Q42NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following are characteristic features of Solanaceae family? (a) Flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic (b) Calyx have five sepals and are united (c) Androecium have five stamens and are epipetalous (d) Ovary is inferior Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Solanaceae flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic, with five united persistent sepals and five epipetalous stamens. The bicarpellary ovary is superior, so the statement about an inferior ovary is false.
Q43NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement I: When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry. Statement II: In phylum Echinodermata, both adults and larvae are radially symmetrical. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Statement I is the standard definition of radial symmetry. Echinoderm adults are radially symmetrical but their larvae are bilaterally symmetrical, so Statement II is false.
Q44NEET 2026 Re-exam
The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is ____.
Not quite — the answer is D.
The cell cycle proceeds from G1 (growth) to S (DNA replication) to G2 (preparation for division) and then M phase (mitosis). Placing G2 before S would mean preparing for division before DNA is copied.
Q45NEET 2026 Re-exam
In frogs, the number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain are ____.
Not quite — the answer is D.
Ten pairs of cranial nerves arise from the frog brain. Twelve pairs is the number in humans and other amniotes, which is the usual trap.
Q46NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is for plant cells. Reason R: Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
To isolate DNA, the cell wall and membrane must first be broken open; lysozyme digests the bacterial cell wall and cellulase digests the plant cell wall. The Assertion is true and the need to disrupt cells is exactly why these enzymes are used, so the Reason correctly explains it.
Q47NEET 2026 Re-exam
The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called:
Not quite — the answer is D.
In ICSI a single sperm is injected directly into the cytoplasm of the ovum in the laboratory to form an embryo. GIFT transfers an ovum into the fallopian tube and ZIFT transfers a zygote; neither involves injecting sperm into the egg.
Q48NEET 2026 Re-exam
Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distant species is an example of ____.
Not quite — the answer is C.
When two separate adaptive radiations in different lineages produce similar-looking forms, such as the placental wolf and the Tasmanian wolf, it is convergent evolution. Divergent evolution is the radiation within one group, not the resemblance between distantly related ones.
Q49NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf. Reason R: Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
When Mendel crossed true-breeding tall and dwarf pea plants, all F1 plants were tall. This happens because tall is dominant over dwarf, so the heterozygous F1 shows only the tall trait; the Reason explains the Assertion.
Q50NEET 2026 Re-exam
Arrange the following in descending order of number of species in the Amazonian rain forest. (a) Plants (b) Birds (c) Fishes (d) Invertebrates (e) Mammals Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The Amazon is estimated to hold about 1,25,000 invertebrates, more than 40,000 plants, 3,000 fishes, 1,300 birds and 427 mammals. So the order is invertebrates > plants > fishes > birds > mammals; putting birds above fishes is the trap.
Q51NEET 2026 Re-exam
Sponges exchange O₂ with CO₂ by ____.
Not quite — the answer is B.
Sponges have no respiratory organs; water flowing through the canal system lets O₂ and CO₂ diffuse across the body surface of the cells. Gills, a moist cuticle and tracheal tubes are found in other animal groups.
Q52NEET 2026 Re-exam
For a person with blood group 'O', which of the following is not a possible combination of parents' blood group genotypes?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Blood group O has genotype ii, so the child must receive an i allele from each parent. A father with genotype IᴬIᴮ carries no i allele and cannot have an O child, while every other pair has both parents carrying i.
Q53NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents. Statement II: Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Modern Homo sapiens arose in Africa and then spread across continents, so Statement I is false. The NCERT account places the rise of modern Homo sapiens during the ice age between about 75,000 and 10,000 years ago, so Statement II is taken as true.
Q54NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Morphine, an opioid obtained from the latex of poppy, is a very effective sedative and painkiller used for patients after surgery. Antibiotics fight bacteria and interferons and anti-retroviral drugs act against viruses; none relieve pain.
Q55NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following plants produces non-albuminous seeds?
Not quite — the answer is A.
In pea, groundnut and beans the endosperm is fully used up by the developing embryo, leaving non-albuminous seeds. Wheat, maize and barley are cereals that retain endosperm and so have albuminous seeds.
Q56NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced. Reason R: Goats were more efficient at browsing than Abingdon tortoise. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
The Abingdon tortoise disappeared within about a decade after goats arrived on its Galapagos island. This was due to competition: the goats browsed far more efficiently and took the food, so the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Q57NEET 2026 Re-exam
The covering of ovum at ovulation is ____.
Not quite — the answer is D.
The secondary oocyte released at ovulation is surrounded by the zona pellucida, a non-cellular layer (with corona radiata cells outside it). The chorion is an extra-embryonic membrane and the endometrium is the uterine lining, so they are not coverings of the released ovum.
Q58NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following is used as a clot buster?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Streptokinase from Streptococcus is used as a clot buster to dissolve blood clots in heart-attack patients. Statins lower blood cholesterol and cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressant, so neither removes clots.
Q59NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following structure is not a part of the male reproductive system?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped part of the fallopian tube near the ovary, so it belongs to the female system. Rete testis, vasa efferentia and epididymis are male accessory ducts.
Q60NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles. Statement II: Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transform into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is D.
The mid-cycle LH surge causes the Graafian follicle to rupture and release the ovum, so Statement I is true. The remaining follicle becomes the corpus luteum, which secretes large amounts of progesterone, not estrogen, so Statement II is false.
Q61NEET 2026 Re-exam
The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by ____.
Not quite — the answer is C.
The right atrioventricular opening is guarded by the tricuspid valve with three cusps. The bicuspid (mitral) valve guards the left atrioventricular opening, and semilunar valves guard the exits into the aorta and pulmonary artery.
Q62NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following is not evidence for evolution?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Haeckel proposed that embryos pass through adult stages of ancestors, but Karl Ernst von Baer showed that embryos never pass through the adult stages of other animals, so this proposal was disproved. Fossils, homologous forelimbs and analogous wings are accepted evidences of evolution.
Q63NEET 2026 Re-exam
The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut ____
Not quite — the answer is B.
The Bt toxin is stored as an inactive protoxin crystal; in the insect gut the alkaline pH solubilises the crystals and converts it to the active toxin that damages the gut epithelium. An acidic pH is the opposite of the condition in the insect gut.
Q64NEET 2026 Re-exam
Colostrum, secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, is abundant in ____.
Not quite — the answer is D.
Colostrum, the yellowish milk of the first days of lactation, is rich in IgA antibodies that give the newborn passive immunity. IgG is the antibody that crosses the placenta, not the main one in colostrum.
Q65NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following in female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The synergids have a filiform apparatus at their micropylar tip that guides the pollen tube into the synergid. Antipodals lie at the chalazal end and polar nuclei in the central cell have no guiding role.
Q66NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Tuberculosis spreads mainly through airborne droplets and is not a sexually transmitted infection. Genital warts, syphilis and gonorrhoea are all listed as STIs.
Q67NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following statements about lac-operon is correct?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The repressor protein is synthesised all the time (constitutively) from the i gene. Lactose (not galactose) is the inducer and it inactivates the repressor rather than activating it, and the i gene has its own promoter, separate from the one shared by z, y and a.
Q68NEET 2026 Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I A. Transformation B. Cloning site C. Selection D. Ori List-II I. Restriction enzyme II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria III. Replication IV. Antibiotic Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Transformation is the transfer of DNA into host bacteria, a cloning site is a recognition site for a restriction enzyme, selection of transformants uses antibiotic resistance markers, and ori is where replication starts. Linking ori to antibiotic resistance confuses the two vector features.
Q69NEET 2026 Re-exam
A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is ____.
Not quite — the answer is B.
At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium the frequency of AA is p², so 0.1 × 0.1 = 0.01. The value 0.10 is the allele frequency itself, not the genotype frequency.
Q70NEET 2026 Re-exam
Sperm motility is due to ____.
Not quite — the answer is B.
A sperm moves by beating of its tail, which is a flagellum powered by mitochondria in the middle piece. Ciliary movement moves the ovum along the fallopian tube, not the sperm itself.
Q71NEET 2026 Re-exam
Consider a population of 10 million cells. Given the per-capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and the percapita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time), the expected number of cells after 10 generations is ____.
Not quite — the answer is D.
The intrinsic rate of increase r = b − d = 0.002 − 0.002 = 0, so the population neither grows nor declines. After any number of generations it stays at 10 million cells; multiplying by 10 to get 100 million ignores that births and deaths cancel out.
Q72NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Forelimbs of human and bats are homologous. Reason R: Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Human and bat forelimbs perform different functions but share the same basic pattern of humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges. That shared anatomical structure from common ancestry is what makes them homologous, so the Reason explains the Assertion.
Q73NEET 2026 Re-exam
Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of ____.
Not quite — the answer is B.
A neural signal reaching the neuromuscular junction releases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma and starts contraction. Acetyl coenzyme A is a respiratory intermediate, not a neurotransmitter.
Q74NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The placenta secretes hCG, hPL, estrogens and progestogens during pregnancy. LH is secreted by the anterior pituitary, not by the placenta; hCG resembles LH in action, which is the trap.
Q75NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Plasmodium multiplies asexually in human liver cells and RBCs, where gametocytes are formed. When a female Anopheles sucks blood, the gametocytes are taken up and fertilisation takes place in the mosquito's gut. Gametocytes develop in human RBCs, not in the mosquito gut.
Q76NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Herbivores feed directly on producers (plants) and so occupy the second trophic level as primary consumers. Carnivores and predators feed on other animals and are secondary or higher consumers.
Q77NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model. Reason R: Resources are finite. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
No population can grow exponentially for long, because resources in nature are finite and eventually limit growth. The logistic model includes this limit as a carrying capacity, which is why it is more realistic; the Reason explains the Assertion.
Q78NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of vertebral column from the head to toe?
Not quite — the answer is A.
From the skull downwards the vertebral column has 7 cervical, 12 thoracic and 5 lumbar vertebrae, followed by the sacrum and coccyx. The reverse order runs from toe to head, and putting lumbar before thoracic misplaces the chest region.
Q79NEET 2026 Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I A. Both species are harmed B. One species is harmed and the other is benefited C. Both species are benefited D. One is benefited while the other has no effect List-II I. Predation II. Mutualism III. Competition IV. Commensalism Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In competition both species lose (− −), in predation one gains and the other is harmed (+ −), in mutualism both gain (+ +), and in commensalism one gains while the other is unaffected (+ 0). Calling a harm-and-benefit interaction commensalism ignores the harm to one partner.
Q80NEET 2026 Re-exam
If the diploid chromosome number of typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The endosperm is triploid, formed by fusion of a male gamete with two polar nuclei. With 2n = 36, n = 18, so 3n = 54; 18 is the gamete number and 36 the zygote number.
Q81NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA?
Not quite — the answer is C.
In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase II transcribes the precursor of mRNA, the heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA). RNA polymerase I makes rRNAs and RNA polymerase III makes tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNAs.
Q82NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA. Statement II: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Plasmids are small circular DNA molecules present outside the bacterial chromosome, so they are extrachromosomal. They carry their own origin of replication and replicate independently of the chromosome. Both statements are true.
Q83NEET 2026 Re-exam
How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther?
Not quite — the answer is B.
A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed and each lobe has two thecae, so it is dithecous. The anther as a whole has four microsporangia, one at each corner.
Q84NEET 2026 Re-exam
Natural selection can lead to ____. (a) stabilisation (b) genetic drift (c) directional change (d) disruption Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Natural selection can be stabilising (more individuals with the mean value), directional (shift towards one extreme) or disruptive (both extremes favoured). Genetic drift is a chance change in allele frequencies that acts separately from selection, so it is not a result of natural selection.
Q85NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following statements are Correct? (a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional (b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted (c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Energy flows in one direction from producers to consumers, and because energy is lost at every level the pyramid of energy is always upright. The transfer between trophic levels follows the 10 percent law, not a 1 percent law, so that statement is false.
Q86NEET 2026 Re-exam
Match List-I with List-II. List-I (A) Excess growth hormone (B) Luteinizing hormone (C) Vasopressin (D) Oxytocin List-II (I) Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in kidney (II) Contraction of uterus during child birth (III) Acromegaly (IV) Ovulation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Excess growth hormone in adults causes acromegaly, the LH surge induces ovulation, vasopressin (ADH) increases reabsorption of water and electrolytes in the kidney, and oxytocin causes uterine contraction during childbirth. Swapping vasopressin and oxytocin is the usual error.
Q87NEET 2026 Re-exam
Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs? (a) Bone marrow (b) Tonsils (c) Spleen (d) Thymus Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphoid organs where lymphocytes are produced and mature. Tonsils, spleen, lymph nodes, Peyer's patches and MALT are secondary lymphoid organs where lymphocytes meet antigens.
Q88NEET 2026 Re-exam
During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ____ step.
Not quite — the answer is D.
PCR has three steps: denaturation separates the strands at high temperature, annealing lets primers bind to the single strands, and extension synthesises new DNA with Taq polymerase. Ligation is not a step of PCR.
Q89NEET 2026 Re-exam
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Down's syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes. Statement II: Turner's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Down's syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21), and Turner's syndrome by the absence of one X chromosome (45, XO). The two statements swap the causes, so both are incorrect.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2026 Re-exam Biology
- Cell: The Unit of Life7 Q
- Evolution6 Q
- Photosynthesis in Higher Plants5 Q
- Biological Classification5 Q
- Human Reproduction5 Q
- Animal Kingdom4 Q
- Locomotion and Movement4 Q
- Biotechnology: Principles and Processes4 Q
- Human Health and Disease4 Q
- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants4 Q
- Morphology of Flowering Plants3 Q
- Plant Growth and Development3 Q
- The Living World3 Q
- Chemical Coordination and Integration3 Q
- Body Fluids and Circulation3 Q
- Principles of Inheritance and Variation3 Q
- Organisms and Populations3 Q
- Plant Kingdom2 Q
- Structural Organisation in Animals2 Q
- Biomolecules2 Q
- Cell Cycle and Cell Division2 Q
- Reproductive Health2 Q
- Biodiversity and Conservation2 Q
- Molecular Basis of Inheritance2 Q
- Ecosystem2 Q
- Respiration in Plants1 Q
- Neural Control and Coordination1 Q
- Microbes in Human Welfare1 Q
- Biotechnology and Its Applications1 Q
About this paper
How many questions from NEET 2026 Re-exam are on this page?
151 questions (Physics 25, Chemistry 37, Biology 89). Questions that need a diagram we could not reproduce, or whose wording in the source was unclear, are left out.
Are these the original questions?
Yes. The questions and options are as set in the NEET 2026 Re-exam paper, conducted by NTA. The answer to every question was checked by the RankUp team, and the explanations are RankUp's own.
Is NEET 2026 Re-exam useful for NEET 2027?
Yes. The NEET syllabus is built on the same NCERT books.
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