NEET 2023 Manipur Question PaperPhysics, Chemistry and Biology, with checked answers and solutions
By the RankUp team, founded by Dr. Deepak Sahu (MBBS Gold Medalist, NEET PG AIR 1731) · Updated
184 questions from the NEET 2023 Manipur paper, conducted by NTA. Tap an option to check your answer and read why it is right. Each subject has a free PDF with the answer key and explanations.
- Exam
- NEET 2023 Manipur
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- NTA
- Physics
- 39 questions
- Chemistry
- 48 questions
- Biology
- 97 questions
NEET 2023 Manipur Physics questions
38 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2023 Manipur
A bullet of mass m hits a block of mass M elastically. The transfer of energy is the maximum, when :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In a head-on elastic collision with M at rest, the fraction of kinetic energy transferred is 4mM/(m + M)². This equals 1 when M = m (the bullet stops and the block moves off with its velocity). A very heavy block barely moves and a very light block takes little energy, so both extremes give small transfer.
Q2NEET 2023 Manipur
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is −13.6 eV. The energy needed to ionize hydrogen atom from its second excited state will be :
Not quite — the answer is C.
The second excited state is n = 3, with Eₙ = −13.6/n² = −13.6/9 = −1.51 eV. Ionisation needs energy to raise it to 0, i.e. 1.51 eV. Taking the second excited state as n = 2 gives the trap value 3.4 eV.
Q3NEET 2023 Manipur
The escape velocity of a body on the earth surface is 11.2 km/s. If the same body is projected upward with velocity 22.4 km/s, the velocity of this body at infinite distance from the centre of the earth will be:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Energy conservation: ½mv² − GMm/R = ½mv∞², and GMm/R = ½mvₑ². So v∞² = v² − vₑ² = (22.4)² − (11.2)² = 11.2²(4 − 1) = 3 × 11.2², giving v∞ = 11.2√3 km/s. Subtracting speeds directly (22.4 − 11.2 = 11.2) ignores that energies, not velocities, add.
Q4NEET 2023 Manipur
The diameter of a spherical bob, when measured with vernier callipers yielded the following values : 3.33 cm, 3.32 cm, 3.34 cm, 3.33 cm and 3.32 cm. The mean diameter to appropriate significant figures is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Mean = (3.33 + 3.32 + 3.34 + 3.33 + 3.32)/5 = 16.64/5 = 3.328 cm. Each reading is given to two decimal places (least count 0.01 cm), so the mean is rounded to 3.33 cm. Writing 3.328 cm claims more precision than the instrument gives.
Q5NEET 2023 Manipur
On the basis of electrical conductivity, which one of the following materials has the smallest resistivity?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Silver is a metal and the best electrical conductor, with resistivity about 1.6 × 10⁻⁸ Ω m. Germanium and silicon are semiconductors with resistivities many orders of magnitude higher, and glass is an insulator with the highest resistivity of all.
Q6NEET 2023 Manipur
The mechanical quantity, which has dimensions of reciprocal of mass (M⁻¹) is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
From F = Gm₁m₂/r², G = Fr²/m², with dimensions [M⁻¹L³T⁻²], so it contains M⁻¹. Angular momentum [ML²T⁻¹], torque [ML²T⁻²] and thermal conductivity [MLT⁻³K⁻¹] all have mass to the power +1.
Q7NEET 2023 Manipur
The position of a particle is given by r⃗(t) = 4t î + 2t² ĵ + 5 k̂ where t is in seconds and r in metre. Find the magnitude and direction of velocity v(t), at t = 1 s, with respect to x-axis
Not quite — the answer is A.
v⃗ = dr⃗/dt = 4 î + 4t ĵ; at t = 1 s, v⃗ = 4 î + 4 ĵ (the constant 5 k̂ term gives no velocity). |v| = √(16 + 16) = 4√2 m s⁻¹, and tan θ = 4/4 = 1, so θ = 45° with the x-axis.
Q8NEET 2023 Manipur
An ac source is connected in the given circuit. The value of φ will be : [Circuit: an inductor of (1/π) H in series with a 100 Ω resistor across an ac source V = 220 sin(100πt + φ) Volt]
Not quite — the answer is D.
ω = 100π rad s⁻¹, so X_L = ωL = 100π × (1/π) = 100 Ω. In the series LR circuit tan φ = X_L/R = 100/100 = 1, so φ = 45°. A value of 90° would apply only to a pure inductor.
Q9NEET 2023 Manipur
The given circuit is equivalent to: [Circuit: input A passes through a NOT gate and input B passes through a NOT gate; the two outputs are fed to a NOR gate, whose output is Y]
Not quite — the answer is D.
The NOR gate receives Ā and B̄, so Y = NOT(Ā + B̄). By De Morgan's theorem NOT(Ā + B̄) = A·B, which is the AND function. NAND would be the result if the final gate had been an OR with inverted inputs.
Q10NEET 2023 Manipur
A particle moves with a velocity (5î − 3ĵ + 6k̂) m s⁻¹ horizontally under the action of constant force (10î + 10ĵ + 20k̂) N. The instantaneous power supplied to the particle is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
P = F⃗ · v⃗ = (10)(5) + (10)(−3) + (20)(6) = 50 − 30 + 120 = 140 W. Ignoring the negative y-component (taking +30) would give the trap value 200 W.
Q11NEET 2023 Manipur
A certain wire A has resistance 81 Ω. The resistance of another wire B of same material and equal length but of diameter thrice the diameter of A will be :
Not quite — the answer is B.
R = ρL/A with A = πd²/4, so for the same material and length R ∝ 1/d². Tripling the diameter makes the area 9 times larger, so R = 81/9 = 9 Ω. Using R ∝ 1/d would give 27 Ω, and multiplying instead of dividing gives 729 Ω.
Q12NEET 2023 Manipur
ε₀ and μ₀ are the electric permittivity and magnetic permeability of free space respectively. If the corresponding quantities of a medium are 2ε₀ and 1.5μ₀ respectively, the refractive index of the medium will nearly be :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Speed in a medium v = 1/√(με) and in vacuum c = 1/√(μ₀ε₀), so n = c/v = √(μᵣεᵣ) = √(1.5 × 2) = √3. Forgetting the square root gives 3.
Q13NEET 2023 Manipur
The amount of elastic potential energy per unit volume (in SI unit) of a steel wire of length 100 cm to stretch it by 1 mm is (if Young's modulus of the wire = 2.0 × 10¹¹ N m⁻²) :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Strain = ΔL/L = 1 × 10⁻³ m / 1 m = 10⁻³. Energy per unit volume = ½ Y (strain)² = ½ × 2.0 × 10¹¹ × 10⁻⁶ = 10⁵ J m⁻³. Using Y × strain (the stress) without the ½ × strain factor would give a much larger number.
Q14NEET 2023 Manipur
The 4th overtone of a closed organ pipe is same as that of 3rd overtone of an open pipe. The ratio of the length of the closed pipe to the length of the open pipe is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
A closed pipe has only odd harmonics; its 4th overtone is the 9th harmonic, f = 9v/4L_c. An open pipe has all harmonics; its 3rd overtone is the 4th harmonic, f = 4v/2L_o = 2v/L_o. Equating, 9/(4L_c) = 2/L_o, so L_c/L_o = 9/8. Inverting the ratio gives the trap 8 : 9.
Q15NEET 2023 Manipur
A long straight wire of length 2 m and mass 250 g is suspended horizontally in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 0.7 T. The amount of current flowing through the wire will be (g = 9.8 m s⁻²) :
Not quite — the answer is D.
For the wire to stay suspended the magnetic force balances its weight: BIL = mg, so I = mg/(BL) = (0.25 × 9.8)/(0.7 × 2) = 2.45/1.4 = 1.75 A. The value 2.45 is the weight in newtons, not the current.
Q16NEET 2023 Manipur
According to Gauss law of electrostatics, electric flux through a closed surface depends on :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Gauss's law states Φ = q_enclosed/ε₀, so the total flux through a closed surface depends only on the net charge enclosed. The area, shape or volume of the surface can change without changing the flux as long as the enclosed charge is unchanged.
Q17NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following statements is not true?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Pressure at a point acts equally in all directions and has no particular direction of its own, so it is a scalar, even though the force it produces on a surface is a vector. Coefficient of viscosity, surface tension and relative density are also scalars, so only the statement calling pressure a vector is untrue.
Q18NEET 2023 Manipur
A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is pointed along the direction of fields, then the electron:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Since v⃗ is parallel to B⃗, the magnetic force qv⃗ × B⃗ is zero, so the electron does not turn either way. The electric force on the negative electron is −eE⃗, opposite to its velocity, so it decelerates and its speed decreases. A positive charge would have speeded up.
Q19NEET 2023 Manipur
A p-type extrinsic semiconductor is obtained when Germanium is doped with:
Not quite — the answer is D.
A p-type semiconductor needs a trivalent (acceptor) impurity, which creates holes. Boron is trivalent; antimony, phosphorus and arsenic are pentavalent donors and give n-type material.
Q20NEET 2023 Manipur
The wavelength of Lyman series of hydrogen atom appears in:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Lyman lines are transitions ending on n = 1, with wavelengths from about 91 nm to 122 nm, which lie in the ultraviolet. The visible lines belong to the Balmer series (ending on n = 2), and the Paschen, Brackett and Pfund series lie in the infrared.
Q21NEET 2023 Manipur
The de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron, accelerated by a potential difference of 81 V is given by:
Not quite — the answer is D.
For an electron accelerated through V volts, λ = h/√(2meV) ≈ 1.227/√V nm. With V = 81 V, λ = 1.227/9 ≈ 0.136 nm. The other options are this value shifted by powers of ten.
Q22NEET 2023 Manipur
The maximum power is dissipated for an ac in a/an:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Average power is P = V_rms I_rms cos φ. In a purely resistive circuit φ = 0 and cos φ = 1, giving the maximum power. In purely inductive, capacitive or LC circuits φ = ±90°, so the average power dissipated is zero.
Q23NEET 2023 Manipur
The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in photoelectric effect is independent of:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Einstein's equation K_max = hν − φ₀ shows the maximum kinetic energy depends on the frequency (or wavelength) of the light and on the work function. Intensity only changes the number of photons, and hence the photocurrent, not K_max.
Q24NEET 2023 Manipur
Two particles A and B initially at rest, move towards each other under mutual force of attraction. At an instance when the speed of A is v and speed of B is 3v, the speed of centre of mass is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The only forces are internal (mutual attraction), so the total momentum stays at its initial value of zero and the centre of mass, initially at rest, stays at rest. The speeds v and 3v simply reflect a 3 : 1 mass ratio; averaging the speeds is the trap.
Q25NEET 2023 Manipur
A charge Q μC is placed at the centre of a cube. The flux coming out from any one of its faces will be (in SI unit) :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Total flux through the closed cube is q/ε₀ = Q × 10⁻⁶/ε₀. By symmetry the six faces share it equally, so each face carries (Q/6ε₀) × 10⁻⁶. The 10⁻³ factor would be for millicoulombs, and the 1/ε₀ version is the total, not one face.
Q26NEET 2023 Manipur
The viscous drag acting on a metal sphere of diameter 1 mm, falling through a fluid of viscosity 0.8 Pa s with a velocity of 2 m s⁻¹ is equal to :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Stokes' law: F = 6πηrv with r = 0.5 mm = 5 × 10⁻⁴ m. F = 6π × 0.8 × 5 × 10⁻⁴ × 2 = 4.8π × 10⁻³ ≈ 15 × 10⁻³ N. Using the diameter instead of the radius doubles this to about 30 × 10⁻³ N.
Q27NEET 2023 Manipur
If R is the radius of the earth and g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth surface. Then the mean density of the earth will be :
Not quite — the answer is C.
g = GM/R² with M = (4/3)πR³ρ gives g = (4/3)πGRρ. Hence ρ = 3g/(4πGR). The other expressions invert or misplace g, R or G.
Q28NEET 2023 Manipur
A copper wire of radius 1 mm contains 10²² free electrons per cubic metre. The drift velocity for free electrons when 10 A current flows through the wire will be (Given, charge on electron = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C) :
Not quite — the answer is B.
v_d = I/(neA) with A = π(10⁻³)² = π × 10⁻⁶ m². v_d = 10/(10²² × 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ × π × 10⁻⁶) = 10/(1.6π × 10⁻³) = (6.25/π) × 10³ m s⁻¹. (The unusually small electron density given makes the value large, but it follows from the data.)
Q29NEET 2023 Manipur
An object is mounted on a wall. Its image of equal size is to be obtained on a parallel wall with the help of a convex lens placed between these walls. The lens is kept at distance x in front of the second wall. The required focal length of the lens will be :
Not quite — the answer is C.
A real image of the same size as the object forms when u = v = 2f. The image is on the second wall at distance x from the lens, so v = x = 2f and f = x/2. The value x/4 would apply if x were the distance between the two walls (4f).
Q30NEET 2023 Manipur
If a conducting sphere of radius R is charged. Then the electric field at a distance r (r > R) from the centre of the sphere would be, (V = potential on the surface of the sphere)
Not quite — the answer is C.
Outside, the sphere acts as a point charge: E = kQ/r². On the surface V = kQ/R, so kQ = VR and E = VR/r². The expression V/r would be correct only at the surface (r = R).
Q31NEET 2023 Manipur
A container of volume 200 cm³ contains 0.2 mole of hydrogen gas and 0.3 mole of argon gas. The pressure of the system at temperature 200 K (R = 8.3 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹) will be :-
Not quite — the answer is D.
Total moles n = 0.2 + 0.3 = 0.5 mol and V = 200 cm³ = 2 × 10⁻⁴ m³. P = nRT/V = 0.5 × 8.3 × 200/(2 × 10⁻⁴) = 830/(2 × 10⁻⁴) = 4.15 × 10⁶ Pa. Leaving the volume in litres instead of m³ shifts the power of ten.
Q32NEET 2023 Manipur
To produce an instantaneous displacement current of 2 mA in the space between the parallel plates of a capacitor of capacitance 4 μF, the rate of change of applied variable potential difference (dV/dt) must be :-
Not quite — the answer is B.
Displacement current I_d = ε₀ dΦ_E/dt = C dV/dt. So dV/dt = I_d/C = 2 × 10⁻³/(4 × 10⁻⁶) = 500 V s⁻¹. Multiplying instead of dividing gives a meaningless value.
Q33NEET 2023 Manipur
An emf is generated by an ac generator having 100 turn coil, of loop area 1 m². The coil rotates at a speed of one revolution per second and placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.05 T perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the coil. The maximum value of emf is :-
Not quite — the answer is B.
ε₀ = NBAω with ω = 2π × 1 rev s⁻¹ = 2π rad s⁻¹. ε₀ = 100 × 0.05 × 1 × 2π = 10π ≈ 31.4 V. Using ω = 1 rad s⁻¹ (forgetting 2π) gives 5 V, and using π alone gives 15.7 V.
Q34NEET 2023 Manipur
A constant torque of 100 N m turns a wheel of moment of inertia 300 kg m² about an axis passing through its centre. Starting from rest, its angular velocity after 3 s is :-
Not quite — the answer is A.
α = τ/I = 100/300 = 1/3 rad s⁻². Starting from rest, ω = αt = (1/3) × 3 = 1 rad s⁻¹.
Q35NEET 2023 Manipur
A 1 kg object strikes a wall with velocity 1 m s⁻¹ at an angle of 60° with the wall and reflects at the same angle. If it remains in contact with wall for 0.1 s, then the force exerted on the wall is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Only the component perpendicular to the wall reverses. The angle with the wall is 60°, so the normal component is v sin 60° = √3/2 m s⁻¹. Δp = 2mv sin 60° = 2 × 1 × √3/2 = √3 kg m s⁻¹, and F = Δp/Δt = √3/0.1 = 10√3 N. Using cos 60° (as if the angle were with the normal) would give 10 N.
Q36NEET 2023 Manipur
The angular momentum of an electron moving in an orbit of hydrogen atom is 1.5 (h/π). The energy in the same orbit is nearly.
Not quite — the answer is A.
Bohr quantisation: L = nh/2π. Here 1.5 h/π = 3h/2π, so n = 3. E₃ = −13.6/9 ≈ −1.51 eV, i.e. nearly −1.5 eV.
Q37NEET 2023 Manipur
A particle is executing uniform circular motion with velocity v⃗ and acceleration a⃗. Which of the following is true?
Not quite — the answer is B.
In uniform circular motion the speed and the magnitude of acceleration are constant, but the velocity keeps changing direction along the tangent and the centripetal acceleration keeps changing direction toward the centre. So neither vector is constant.
Q38NEET 2023 Manipur
A simple pendulum oscillating in air has a period of √3 s. If it is completely immersed in non-viscous liquid, having density (1/4)th of the material of the bob, the new period will be :-
Not quite — the answer is C.
Buoyancy reduces the effective weight: g_eff = g(1 − ρ_liquid/ρ_bob) = g(1 − 1/4) = 3g/4. T ∝ 1/√g, so T' = T/√(3/4) = √3 × 2/√3 = 2 s. Multiplying instead of dividing gives 3/2 s, which is not offered.
Physics: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 1 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
1 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2023 Manipur
The emf of a cell having internal resistance 1 Ω is balanced against a length of 330 cm on a potentiometer wire. When an external resistance of 2 Ω is connected across the cell, the balancing length will be :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Open-circuit balance gives E ∝ 330 cm. With the 2 Ω resistor, the terminal voltage is V = E R/(R + r) = E × 2/3, so the new balancing length is 330 × 2/3 = 220 cm. Expecting no change ignores the drop across the internal resistance.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2023 Manipur Physics
- Atoms3 Q
- Current Electricity3 Q
- Work, Energy and Power2 Q
- Gravitation2 Q
- Units and Measurements2 Q
- Motion in a Plane2 Q
- Alternating Current2 Q
- Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits2 Q
- Electromagnetic Waves2 Q
- Moving Charges and Magnetism2 Q
- Electric Charges and Fields2 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Fluids2 Q
- Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter2 Q
- System of Particles and Rotational Motion2 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Solids1 Q
- Waves1 Q
- Ray Optics and Optical Instruments1 Q
- Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance1 Q
- Kinetic Theory1 Q
- Electromagnetic Induction1 Q
- Laws of Motion1 Q
- Oscillations1 Q
NEET 2023 Manipur Chemistry questions
35 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2023 Manipur
Incorrect set of quantum numbers from the following is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
For a given ℓ, mℓ takes all 2ℓ + 1 integer values from −ℓ to +ℓ including zero. With ℓ = 2 the set must be −2, −1, 0, +1, +2; the set for n = 5, ℓ = 2 leaves out mℓ = 0, so it is incorrect. The other sets list every allowed mℓ and have ℓ < n.
Q2NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Ionisation enthalpy increases along each series of the transition elements from left to right. However, small variations occur. Reason (R) : There is corresponding increase in nuclear charge which accompanies the filling of electrons in the inner d-orbitals. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Across a transition series the nuclear charge rises by one unit at each step while the added electron goes into the inner (n−1)d subshell, which shields the outer ns electrons only partly. The effective nuclear charge on the 4s electrons therefore rises, so ionisation enthalpy generally increases, with small irregularities from the changing d-configurations. The Reason states exactly this cause, so both are correct and the Reason explains the Assertion.
Q3NEET 2023 Manipur
For a weak acid HA, the percentage of dissociation is nearly 1% at equilibrium. If the concentration of acid is 0.1 mol L⁻¹, then the correct option for its Kₐ at the same temperature is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
For a weak acid with small α, Kₐ ≈ Cα². Here α = 0.01 and C = 0.1 mol L⁻¹, so Kₐ = 0.1 × (0.01)² = 1 × 10⁻⁵. Taking Kₐ = Cα (giving 1 × 10⁻³) forgets that α must be squared.
Q4NEET 2023 Manipur
The density of 1 M solution of a compound 'X' is 1.25 g mL⁻¹. The correct option for the molality of solution is (Molar mass of compound X = 85 g):
Not quite — the answer is D.
Take 1 L of solution: mass = 1000 mL × 1.25 g mL⁻¹ = 1250 g, containing 1 mol (85 g) of X. Mass of solvent = 1250 − 85 = 1165 g = 1.165 kg, so molality = 1 mol / 1.165 kg = 0.858 m. The value 1.165 is the solvent mass in kg, not the molality.
Q5NEET 2023 Manipur
Consider the given reaction: CH₃COCH₃ —(dil Ba(OH)₂)→ "X" The functional groups present in compound "X" are:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Dilute base brings about aldol addition of two acetone molecules, giving diacetone alcohol, (CH₃)₂C(OH)–CH₂–CO–CH₃ (4-hydroxy-4-methylpentan-2-one). It contains a tertiary alcohol group and a ketone group. The C=C containing product (mesityl oxide) forms only on dehydration with heat or acid, which is not part of this step.
Q6NEET 2023 Manipur
The E⊖ values for Al⁺/Al = +0.55 V and Tl⁺/Tl = −0.34 V Al³⁺/Al = −1.66 V and Tl³⁺/Tl = +1.26 V Identify the incorrect statement
Not quite — the answer is B.
The large positive E⊖ for Tl³⁺/Tl (+1.26 V) shows Tl³⁺ is readily reduced, i.e. it is a strong oxidising agent, not a better reducing agent than Tl⁺; that statement is incorrect. The negative value for Tl⁺/Tl shows Tl is easily oxidised to Tl⁺, Al³⁺/Al at −1.66 V shows Al is far more electropositive, and the positive value for Al⁺/Al shows Al⁺ tends to be reduced, so it is unstable.
Q7NEET 2023 Manipur
The correct order of dipole moments for molecules NH₃, H₂S, CH₄ and HF, is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
HF has the most polar bond and the largest dipole moment (about 1.8 D); NH₃ is pyramidal with a lone pair adding to the bond moments (about 1.47 D); H₂S is bent but S–H bonds are weakly polar (about 0.95 D); tetrahedral CH₄ has zero dipole moment. Hence HF > NH₃ > H₂S > CH₄.
Q8NEET 2023 Manipur
Molar conductance of an electrolyte increases with dilution according to the equation: Λm = Λ°m − A√c Which of the following statements are true? (A) This equation applies to both strong and weak electrolytes. (B) Value of the constant A depends upon the nature of the solvent. (C) Value of constant A is same for both BaCl₂ and MgSO₄ (D) Value of constant A is same for both BaCl₂ and Mg(OH)₂ Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is D.
The Debye–Hückel–Onsager relation Λm = Λ°m − A√c holds only for strong electrolytes, so the claim that it applies to weak electrolytes too is false. The constant A depends on the solvent, the temperature and the charge type of the electrolyte: BaCl₂ and Mg(OH)₂ are both 2:1 types and share the same A, whereas MgSO₄ is a 2:2 type with a different A. So only the solvent-dependence statement and the BaCl₂/Mg(OH)₂ statement are true.
Q9NEET 2023 Manipur
The correct value of cell potential in volt for the reaction that occurs when the following two half cells are connected, is Fe²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ → Fe(s), E° = −0.44 V Cr₂O₇²⁻(aq) + 14H⁺ + 6e⁻ → 2Cr³⁺ + 7H₂O, E° = +1.33 V
Not quite — the answer is A.
Dichromate has the higher reduction potential, so it is reduced at the cathode and iron is oxidised at the anode. E°cell = E°cathode − E°anode = 1.33 − (−0.44) = +1.77 V. Standard potentials are intensive, so they are not multiplied by the stoichiometric factors; adding them as 1.33 − 0.44 gives the wrong 0.89 V.
Q10NEET 2023 Manipur
R–COOH —(i) "X", (ii) H₂O/HCl→ R–CH₂OH R–CH=CH₂ —(i) "X", (ii) H₂O, NaOH, H₂O₂→ R–CH₂–CH₂–OH Identify 'X' in above reactions
Not quite — the answer is A.
Diborane reduces carboxylic acids to primary alcohols, and it also adds to alkenes (hydroboration); oxidation of the trialkylborane with alkaline H₂O₂ gives the anti-Markovnikov alcohol R–CH₂–CH₂–OH. LiAlH₄ reduces the acid but does not react with an isolated C=C, NaBH₄ reduces neither, and H₂/Pd would simply hydrogenate the alkene.
Q11NEET 2023 Manipur
For a reaction 3 A → 2 B The average rate of appearance of B is given by Δ[B]/Δt. The correct relation between the average rate of appearance of B with the average rate of disappearance of A is given in option :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Rate = −(1/3)Δ[A]/Δt = (1/2)Δ[B]/Δt, so Δ[B]/Δt = −(2/3)Δ[A]/Δt. Inverting the ratio to −3Δ[A]/2Δt is the common slip; B forms more slowly than A is used up, so the factor must be 2/3.
Q12NEET 2023 Manipur
The following conversion is known as: C₆H₅COCl —(H₂, Pd-BaSO₄)→ C₆H₅CHO
Not quite — the answer is D.
Catalytic hydrogenation of an acyl chloride over palladium poisoned with BaSO₄ stops at the aldehyde; this is the Rosenmund reduction. The Stephen reaction starts from a nitrile with SnCl₂/HCl, the Gattermann-Koch reaction formylates benzene with CO/HCl, and the Etard reaction oxidises toluene with chromyl chloride.
Q13NEET 2023 Manipur
Which one of the following represents all isoelectronic species ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Ca²⁺ (20 − 2), Ar (18), K⁺ (19 − 1) and Cl⁻ (17 + 1) each have 18 electrons, so they are isoelectronic. In the Na⁺, Mg²⁺, O⁻, F⁻ set, O⁻ has only 9 electrons while the others have 10, and the other sets mix species with very different electron counts.
Q14NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements: Statement I : The value of wave function, ψ depends upon the coordinates of the electron in the atom. Statement II : The probability of finding an electron at a point within an atom is proportional to the orbital wave function. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
ψ is a mathematical function of the electron's coordinates, so Statement I is true. The probability of finding the electron at a point is proportional to |ψ|², the square of the wave function, not to ψ itself, so Statement II is false.
Q15NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following is correctly matched?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Mn₂O₇ (highest oxidation state of Mn), SO₂ and TeO₃ all dissolve in water or react with bases to give acids, so the acidic set is correct. SnO₂ is amphoteric rather than basic, NO₂ is acidic rather than neutral, and GeO is acidic rather than amphoteric, which spoils the other three sets.
Q16NEET 2023 Manipur
Which amongst the following reactions of alkyl halides produces isonitrile as a major product? (A) R – X + HCN → (B) R – X + AgCN → (C) R – X + KCN → (D) R – X + NaCN —(H₂O / C₂H₅OH)→ Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
AgCN is largely covalent, so the cyanide attacks through its nitrogen lone pair and the alkyl isocyanide R–NC is the main product. KCN and NaCN are ionic and attack through the more nucleophilic carbon, giving alkyl cyanides R–CN, and HCN is not used to make isonitriles. So only the silver cyanide reaction qualifies.
Q17NEET 2023 Manipur
Which one of the following statements is incorrect related to Molecular Orbital Theory?
Not quite — the answer is C.
With z as the bond axis, the 2px and 2py orbitals overlap sideways to form π and π* orbitals, which are not symmetrical about the bond axis (they change sign on rotation and have a nodal plane containing the axis); only σ orbitals are cylindrically symmetrical. The other statements correctly describe the π* node between nuclei, constructive interference in bonding MOs, and electron density above and below the axis in π bonding MOs.
Q18NEET 2023 Manipur
An acidic buffer is prepared by mixing :
Not quite — the answer is A.
An acidic buffer such as CH₃COOH/CH₃COONa needs a weak acid together with its conjugate base supplied by its salt with a strong base; the pair neutralises both added acid and added base. A strong acid is fully ionised and cannot act as a reservoir, and a weak acid–weak base mixture is not an acidic buffer.
Q19NEET 2023 Manipur
Reagents which can be used to convert alcohols to carboxylic acids, are (A) CrO₃ – H₂SO₄ (B) K₂Cr₂O₇ + H₂SO₄ (C) KMnO₄ + KOH/H₃O⁺ (D) Cu, 573 K (E) CrO₃, (CH₃CO)₂O Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Primary alcohols are oxidised all the way to carboxylic acids by strong oxidants: Jones reagent (CrO₃–H₂SO₄), acidified dichromate, and alkaline KMnO₄ followed by acidification. Hot copper at 573 K only dehydrogenates alcohols to aldehydes or ketones, and CrO₃ in acetic anhydride is used to stop oxidation at the aldehyde stage (as the diacetate), so neither gives the acid.
Q20NEET 2023 Manipur
Select the element (M) whose trihalides cannot be hydrolysed to produce an ion of the form [M(H₂O)₆]³⁺
Not quite — the answer is D.
Boron has no available d-orbitals, so its maximum covalency is 4 and it cannot hold six water molecules; BCl₃ hydrolyses to boric acid instead. Al, Ga and In can expand their coordination to six and form [M(H₂O)₆]³⁺ in water.
Q21NEET 2023 Manipur
The correct option for the rate law that corresponds to overall first order reaction is
Not quite — the answer is D.
Overall order is the sum of the exponents: 0 + 2 = 2, 1 + 1 = 2, 1/2 + 2 = 5/2, and −1/2 + 3/2 = 1. Only the rate law with [A]^(−1/2)[B]^(3/2) is first order overall; a negative order for one reactant is allowed.
Q22NEET 2023 Manipur
Which amongst the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Geometrical isomerism needs two different groups on each doubly bonded carbon. In 3,4-dimethylhex-3-ene, CH₃CH₂C(CH₃)=C(CH₃)CH₂CH₃, each alkene carbon carries a methyl and an ethyl group, so cis and trans forms exist. Pent-1-ene and 2-methylprop-1-ene have a =CH₂ end, and 2,3-dimethylbut-2-ene has two identical methyls on each carbon.
Q23NEET 2023 Manipur
The correct order for the rate of α, β-dehydrohalogenation for the following compounds is _________. (i) CH₂=CH–CH₂–CH₂–I (ii) CH₃–CH₂–CH₂–CH₂–I (iii) CH₃–CH₂–CH(I)–CH₃
Not quite — the answer is D.
In 4-iodobut-1-ene the β-hydrogen is allylic and elimination gives the conjugated buta-1,3-diene, so it reacts fastest. A secondary iodide (2-iodobutane) eliminates faster than a primary one (1-iodobutane) because it gives a more substituted alkene and has more β-hydrogens. Order: 1-iodobutane < 2-iodobutane < 4-iodobut-1-ene.
Q24NEET 2023 Manipur
Type of isomerism exhibited by compounds [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃, [Cr(H₂O)₅Cl]Cl₂ · H₂O, [Cr(H₂O)₄Cl₂]Cl · 2H₂O and the value of coordination number (CN) of central metal ion in all these compounds, respectively is :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The three compounds differ only in whether water is bound to Cr as a ligand or held outside as water of crystallisation (with Cl⁻ moving correspondingly), which is solvate (hydrate) isomerism. In each, Cr is bonded to six ligands (6 H₂O, 5 H₂O + Cl, or 4 H₂O + 2 Cl), so CN = 6.
Q25NEET 2023 Manipur
The correct sequence given below containing neutral, acidic, basic and amphoteric oxide each, respectively, is
Not quite — the answer is D.
NO is a neutral oxide, CO₂ is acidic (gives carbonic acid), CaO is basic (gives Ca(OH)₂), and ZnO is amphoteric (dissolves in both acids and alkalis). Only the sequence NO, CO₂, CaO, ZnO follows the required order; swapping ZnO and CaO is the usual trap.
Q26NEET 2023 Manipur
Choose the correct sequence of reagents in the conversion of 4-nitrotoluene to 2-bromotoluene.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Brominate first: in 4-nitrotoluene both the activating CH₃ (ortho) and the NO₂ group (meta) direct Br to C-2, giving 2-bromo-4-nitrotoluene. Sn/HCl reduces NO₂ to NH₂, NaNO₂/HCl forms the diazonium salt and H₃PO₂/H₂O replaces it by H, leaving 2-bromotoluene. Reducing before brominating would let the strongly directing NH₂ send Br ortho to itself, which after deamination gives 3-bromotoluene.
Q27NEET 2023 Manipur
Identify the product in the following reaction Chlorocyclobutane (cyclobutyl chloride, C₄H₇–Cl) —(i) KCN, (ii) H₂O/HCl, Δ, (iii) Br₂/red phosphorus, (iv) H₂O→ Product
Not quite — the answer is B.
KCN substitutes Cl by CN, and acid hydrolysis converts the nitrile to cyclobutanecarboxylic acid. Br₂ with red phosphorus (Hell–Volhard–Zelinsky reaction) brominates the α-carbon via the acyl bromide, and the final water step hydrolyses the acyl bromide back to the acid, giving 1-bromocyclobutane-1-carboxylic acid. The acyl bromide is only an intermediate before step (iv).
Q28NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements: Statement I : In an organic compound, when inductive and electromeric effects operate in opposite directions, the inductive effect predominates. Statement II : Hyperconjugation is observed in o-xylene. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
When the inductive and electromeric effects oppose each other, the electromeric effect (a temporary, complete shift of π electrons) predominates, so Statement I is false. o-Xylene has methyl groups with α-C–H bonds attached to the benzene ring, so σ–π hyperconjugation occurs and Statement II is true.
Q29NEET 2023 Manipur
The correct option for a redox couple is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
A redox couple is the oxidised and reduced form of the same species taking part in a half-reaction, e.g. Zn²⁺/Zn or Cu²⁺/Cu. It is not two oxidised or two reduced forms, and the cathode and anode together make a cell, not a couple.
Q30NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Ionisation enthalpies of early actinoids are lower than for early lanthanoids. Reason (R) : Electrons are entering 5f orbitals in actinoids which experience greater shielding from nuclear charge. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
5f orbitals penetrate the inner electron core less than 4f orbitals, so 5f electrons are more effectively shielded from the nucleus and are held less tightly. This is exactly why the early actinoids have lower ionisation enthalpies than the early lanthanoids, so both statements are true and the Reason explains the Assertion.
Q31NEET 2023 Manipur
Consider the following reaction :- 2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(g), ΔrH° = −483.64 kJ. What is the enthalpy change for decomposition of one mole of water? (Choose the right option).
Not quite — the answer is B.
Formation of 2 mol of water releases 483.64 kJ, so forming 1 mol releases 483.64/2 = 241.82 kJ. Decomposition is the reverse reaction, so ΔH = +241.82 kJ per mole of water. Halving twice (120.9 kJ) wrongly treats the value as being for 4 mol.
Q32NEET 2023 Manipur
Which amongst the following aqueous solution of electrolytes will have minimum elevation in boiling point? Choose the correct option :-
Not quite — the answer is A.
ΔTb ∝ i × m. Effective particle concentrations: 0.05 M NaCl → 2 × 0.05 = 0.1; 0.1 M KCl → 0.2; 0.1 M MgSO₄ → 0.2; 1 M NaCl → 2. The 0.05 M NaCl solution has the fewest solute particles, so the smallest elevation.
Q33NEET 2023 Manipur
Identify 'X' in the following reaction. Br–C₆H₄–Cl (para; 1.0 mol) + Mg (1.0 mol) —(dry ether)→ Intermediate —(D₂O)→ X
Not quite — the answer is A.
The C–Br bond is weaker and more reactive than C–Cl, so one mole of Mg inserts selectively at the C–Br bond, giving p-ClC₆H₄MgBr. D₂O then replaces MgBr by D, giving 1-chloro-4-deuteriobenzene. With only one equivalent of Mg the chlorine is untouched, so the dideuterio product does not form.
Q34NEET 2023 Manipur
The major product formed in the following conversion is ___________. 2-(2-Oxopropyl)cyclopentan-1-one (cyclopentanone carrying –CH₂–CO–CH₃ on the carbon next to C=O) —(i) NaBH₄, (ii) H₂SO₄, Δ→ Major product
Not quite — the answer is A.
NaBH₄ reduces both ketone groups to secondary alcohols. Hot H₂SO₄ dehydrates both; elimination favours the most substituted, conjugated diene, with the ring C=C at the substituted carbon and the side-chain C=C next to it (–CH=CH–CH₃), i.e. 1-(prop-1-en-1-yl)cyclopent-1-ene. The terminal-alkene and non-conjugated isomers are less stable, and the keto-alkene would need a ketone that NaBH₄ has already reduced.
Q35NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List - I with List - II List - I (Mixtures/Sample): (A) Glycerol from spent lye, (B) Chloroform + Aniline, (C) Fractions of crude oil, (D) Aniline + Water List - II (Technique used for purification): (I) Steam distillation, (II) Fractional distillation, (III) Distillation under reduced pressure, (IV) Distillation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Glycerol decomposes at its boiling point, so it is recovered from spent lye by distillation under reduced pressure. Chloroform (b.p. 334 K) and aniline (b.p. 457 K) differ widely in boiling point, so simple distillation works. Crude oil fractions have close boiling points and need fractional distillation, and aniline is steam volatile and immiscible with water, so it is separated by steam distillation.
Chemistry: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 13 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
13 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2023 Manipur
Match the List - I with List - II List - I (Hydride): (A) NaH, (B) PH₃, (C) GeH₄, (D) LaH₂.₈₇ List - II (Type of Hydride): (I) Electron precise, (II) Saline, (III) Metallic, (IV) Electron rich Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
NaH is an ionic (saline) hydride of an s-block metal; PH₃ has a lone pair on P beyond its bonds, so it is electron rich; GeH₄, like CH₄, has exactly enough electrons for its bonds, so it is electron precise; and the non-stoichiometric LaH₂.₈₇ is a metallic (interstitial) hydride.
Q2NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Hydrated chlorides and bromides of Ca, Sr and Ba on heating undergo hydrolysis. Statement II : Hydrated chlorides and bromides of Be and Mg on heating undergo dehydration. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The behaviour is the reverse of what is stated: hydrated halides of the small, highly polarising Be²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions hydrolyse on heating (e.g. MgCl₂·6H₂O gives MgO/Mg(OH)Cl and HCl), while those of Ca, Sr and Ba simply lose water and give the anhydrous halides. So both statements are false.
Q3NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Lithium and beryllium unlike their other respective group members form compounds with pronounced ionic character. Reason (R) : Lithium and Magnesium have similar properties due to diagonal relationship. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Li⁺ and Be²⁺ are very small with high polarising power, so their compounds have pronounced covalent, not ionic, character; the Assertion is false. Lithium does resemble magnesium (diagonal relationship) because of similar size and charge/size ratio, so the Reason is true.
Q4NEET 2023 Manipur
Cheilosis occurs due to deficiency of _________.
Not quite — the answer is D.
Cheilosis (fissuring at the corners of the mouth and lips) is a classic symptom of vitamin B₂ (riboflavin) deficiency. Thiamine deficiency causes beriberi, nicotinamide deficiency pellagra, and pyridoxine deficiency convulsions.
Q5NEET 2023 Manipur
Which amongst the following is used in controlling depression and hypetension?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Equanil (meprobamate) is the tranquilliser used to control depression and hypertension. Seldane (terfenadine) is an antihistamine, Valium is a tranquilliser for anxiety and stress, and Prontosil is an early sulpha antibacterial drug.
Q6NEET 2023 Manipur
The correct van der Waals equation for 1 mole of a real gas is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
The van der Waals equation for n moles is (p + an²/V²)(V − nb) = nRT; for n = 1 it becomes (p + a/V²)(V − b) = RT. The other forms invert the a/V² term or have the wrong powers.
Q7NEET 2023 Manipur
The correct option in which the density of argon (Atomic mass = 40) is highest:
Not quite — the answer is C.
For an ideal gas d = pM/RT, so density is highest at the highest pressure and lowest temperature. At 0°C and 4 atm, d = 4 × 40/(0.0821 × 273) ≈ 7.1 g L⁻¹, versus about 1.8 at STP, 3.6 at 0°C and 2 atm, and 3.6 at 273°C (546 K) and 4 atm.
Q8NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following is a positively charged sol?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Basic dyes such as methylene blue form positively charged sols. Acid dyes like congo red, metal sols such as silver, and metal sulphide sols such as Sb₂S₃ are negatively charged.
Q9NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements: Statement I : High density polythene is formed in the presence of catalyst triethylaluminium and titanium tetrachloride. Statement II : High density polymers are chemically inert. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
High density polythene is made by polymerising ethene with the Ziegler–Natta catalyst, triethylaluminium with titanium tetrachloride, at low pressure. Its closely packed linear chains make it chemically inert, tough and hard, so both statements are true.
Q10NEET 2023 Manipur
How many number of tetrahedral voids are formed in 5 mol of a compound having cubic close packed structure? (Choose the correct option)
Not quite — the answer is D.
In a close packed structure there are 2 tetrahedral voids per particle. Particles = 5 × 6.022 × 10²³ = 3.011 × 10²⁴, so tetrahedral voids = 2 × 3.011 × 10²⁴ = 6.022 × 10²⁴. The value 3.011 × 10²⁴ is the number of octahedral voids (one per particle).
Q11NEET 2023 Manipur
Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements : (A) Chrome steel is used for cutting tools and crushing machines. (B) The fine dust of aluminium is used in paints and lacquers. (C) Copper is used for reduction of alcohol (D) Zinc dust is used as a reducing agent in the manufacture of paints (E) Iron is used for galvanising zinc Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Chrome steel is used for cutting tools and crushing machinery, fine aluminium dust is used in paints and lacquers, and zinc dust is a reducing agent in making dyes and paints, so these three are correct. Copper is used to dehydrogenate (oxidise) alcohols, not reduce them, and it is zinc that is used to galvanise iron, not the reverse.
Q12NEET 2023 Manipur
How are edge length 'a' of the unit cell and radius 'r' of the sphere related to each other in ccp structure? (Choose correct option for your answer)
Not quite — the answer is D.
In ccp (fcc) the spheres touch along the face diagonal: √2 a = 4r, so a = 4r/√2 = 2√2 r. a = 2r is for simple cubic and a = 4r/√3 is for body-centred cubic.
Q13NEET 2023 Manipur
Which statement is not true about photochemical smog?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Photochemical smog damages plants as well as people: ozone and PAN injure leaves and plant growth, so the claim that it has no effect on plants is untrue. It forms in warm, dry, sunny weather, contains O₃, NO, acrolein, formaldehyde and PAN, and plants such as Pinus and Juniperus help reduce it.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2023 Manipur Chemistry
- Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids4 Q
- Structure of Atom3 Q
- Haloalkanes and Haloarenes3 Q
- The d- and f-Block Elements2 Q
- Equilibrium2 Q
- Solutions2 Q
- Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure2 Q
- Electrochemistry2 Q
- Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers2 Q
- Chemical Kinetics2 Q
- Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques2 Q
- Hydrocarbons1 Q
- Coordination Compounds1 Q
- Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties1 Q
- Amines1 Q
- Redox Reactions1 Q
- Thermodynamics1 Q
NEET 2023 Manipur Biology questions
81 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List - I with List - II List - I | List - II (A) Protein (I) C=C double bonds (B) Unsaturated fatty acid (II) Phosphodiester bond (C) Nucleic acid (III) Glycosidic bonds (D) Polysaccharide (IV) Peptide bonds Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Amino acids in a protein are joined by peptide bonds, an unsaturated fatty acid is defined by its C=C double bonds, nucleotides in a nucleic acid are linked by phosphodiester bonds and monosaccharides in a polysaccharide by glycosidic bonds. The trap is pairing nucleic acids with peptide bonds; peptide bonds belong only to proteins.
Q2NEET 2023 Manipur
In Calotropis, aestivation is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In Calotropis the margins of adjacent sepals or petals just touch each other without overlapping, which is valvate aestivation. Twisted aestivation (china rose, cotton) has each margin overlapping the next, and vexillary is the pea-family arrangement.
Q3NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List - I with List - II. List - I | List - II (A) Chlorophyll a (I) Yellow to yellow orange (B) Chlorophyll b (II) Yellow green (C) Xanthophyll (III) Blue green (D) Carotenoid (IV) Yellow Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In chromatography of leaf pigments, chlorophyll a is bright or blue-green, chlorophyll b yellow-green, xanthophylls yellow and carotenoids yellow to yellow-orange. The trap is swapping the two chlorophylls: chlorophyll b, not a, is the yellow-green one.
Q4NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List - I with List - II. List - I | List - II (A) Monohybrid Cross (I) 1 : 1 (B) Dihybrid Cross (II) 1 : 2 : 1 (C) Incomplete dominance (III) 3 : 1 (D) Test Cross (IV) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is A.
A monohybrid cross gives a 3:1 phenotypic ratio in F₂, a dihybrid cross 9:3:3:1, incomplete dominance 1:2:1 (phenotype matches genotype) and a test cross of a heterozygote 1:1. The 1:2:1 ratio belongs to incomplete dominance, not to the ordinary monohybrid phenotypic ratio.
Q5NEET 2023 Manipur
How many times decarboxylation occurs during each TCA cycle?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Within the TCA cycle CO₂ is released twice: when isocitrate is converted to α-ketoglutarate and when α-ketoglutarate is converted to succinyl CoA. 'Thrice' is the trap; the third CO₂ per pyruvate is released in the link reaction (pyruvate to acetyl CoA), which is not part of the cycle itself.
Q6NEET 2023 Manipur
The dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs during :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The synaptonemal complex forms in zygotene, persists through pachytene while crossing over occurs, and dissolves in diplotene, when homologues begin to separate and chiasmata become visible. Pachytene is the trap: the complex is still present then.
Q7NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : Statement I : RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme in the world. Statement II : Photorespiration does not occur in C₄ plants. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme in the world, so Statement I is correct. In C₄ plants the CO₂ concentration around RuBisCO in bundle sheath cells is kept high, so its oxygenase activity is suppressed and photorespiration does not occur; Statement II is also correct.
Q8NEET 2023 Manipur
In 'rivet popper hypothesis', Paul Ehrlich compared the rivets in an airplane to :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In the rivet popper analogy the airplane is the ecosystem and each rivet is a species; removing rivets one by one (species going extinct) eventually threatens the safety of the whole plane. 'Ecosystem' is the trap: the ecosystem is the airplane, not the rivets.
Q9NEET 2023 Manipur
In a pea flower, five petals are arranged in a specialized manner with one posterior, two lateral and two anterior. These are named as ___________, __________ and _________ respectively.
Not quite — the answer is D.
In vexillary aestivation of pea, the large posterior petal is the standard (vexillum), the two lateral petals are wings and the two anterior petals fuse to form the keel. Options putting keel first reverse the positions.
Q10NEET 2023 Manipur
In which of the following sets of families, the pollen grains are viable for months?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Pollen of many members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae and Solanaceae stays viable for months. Poaceae is the trap: rice and wheat pollen lose viability within about 30 minutes of release.
Q11NEET 2023 Manipur
Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of another flower of same plant is known as :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Geitonogamy is transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of another flower on the same plant; it is functionally cross-pollination but genetically like selfing. Autogamy is within the same flower and xenogamy is to a flower on a different plant.
Q12NEET 2023 Manipur
The phenomenon which is influenced by auxin and also played a major role in its discovery :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Auxin was discovered through the Darwins' studies of phototropism, the bending of canary grass coleoptiles towards unilateral light, later explained by Went's isolation of auxin from coleoptile tips. Apical dominance is also controlled by auxin but played no part in its discovery.
Q13NEET 2023 Manipur
The transverse section of a plant part showed polyarch, radial and exarch xylem, with endodermis and pericycle. The plant part is identified as :
Not quite — the answer is A.
A radial vascular arrangement with exarch xylem, endodermis and pericycle indicates a root, and polyarch xylem (many bundles, usually more than six) indicates a monocot root. Dicot roots have only two to four xylem bundles, and stems have conjoint, endarch bundles.
Q14NEET 2023 Manipur
The last chromosome sequenced in Human Genome Project was:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Chromosome 1, the largest human chromosome, was the last to be completely sequenced, in May 2006. Chromosome 22 is the trap: it was the first one finished.
Q15NEET 2023 Manipur
Plants offer rewards to animals in the form of pollen and nectar and the animals facilitate the pollination process. This is an example of :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Plant–pollinator interaction benefits both partners: the animal gets pollen or nectar and the plant gets pollinated, which is mutualism. Commensalism benefits only one partner while the other is unaffected.
Q16NEET 2023 Manipur
The species of plants that plays a vital role in controlling the relative abundance of other species in a community is called _________.
Not quite — the answer is D.
A keystone species has an influence on community structure far greater than its numbers suggest and controls the relative abundance of other species. Endemic species are those confined to one region, and alien or exotic species are introduced ones.
Q17NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List - I with List - II. List - I | List - II (A) Pteropsida (I) Psilotum (B) Lycopsida (II) Equisetum (C) Psilopsida (III) Adiantum (D) Sphenopsida (IV) Selaginella Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Adiantum is a fern (Pteropsida), Selaginella belongs to Lycopsida, Psilotum to Psilopsida and Equisetum (horsetail) to Sphenopsida. Pairing Pteropsida with Equisetum is the trap; Equisetum is the type of Sphenopsida.
Q18NEET 2023 Manipur
Inulin is a polymer of :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Inulin is a storage polysaccharide made of fructose units, in contrast to starch and glycogen, which are polymers of glucose.
Q19NEET 2023 Manipur
Thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR was isolated from :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Taq polymerase, which survives the high denaturation temperature of each PCR cycle, comes from the hot-spring bacterium Thermus aquaticus. E. coli is the usual cloning host, not the source of the heat-stable enzyme.
Q20NEET 2023 Manipur
Name the component that binds to the operator region of an operon and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon.
Not quite — the answer is C.
The repressor protein, coded by the regulator (i) gene, binds to the operator and physically blocks RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural genes. The regulator gene makes the repressor; the inducer removes it from the operator.
Q21NEET 2023 Manipur
A heterozygous pea plant with violet flowers was crossed with homozygous pea plant with white flower. Violet is dominant over white. Which one of the following represents the expected combinations among 40 progenies formed?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Vv × vv is a test cross: half the progeny are Vv (violet) and half vv (white), so 40 progeny give about 20 violet and 20 white. 30:10 would be the 3:1 result of selfing a heterozygote.
Q22NEET 2023 Manipur
Fatty acids are connected with the respiratory pathway through :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Fats are broken into glycerol and fatty acids; fatty acids are degraded to acetyl CoA, which enters the Krebs cycle. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate is the entry point of glycerol, not of fatty acids.
Q23NEET 2023 Manipur
Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the following site will result in loss of tetracyclin resistance of pBR322 :
Not quite — the answer is D.
In pBR322 the BamH I (and Sal I) sites lie inside the tetracycline resistance gene, so inserting foreign DNA there inactivates it. Pst I and Pvu I sites lie in the ampicillin resistance gene, and the EcoR I site is in neither resistance gene.
Q24NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List - I with List - II. List - I | List - II (A) Auxin (I) Promotes female flower formation in cucumber (B) Gibberellin (II) Overcoming apical dominance (C) Cytokinin (III) Increase in the length of grape stalks (D) Ethylene (IV) Promotes flowering in pineapple Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Auxins induce flowering in pineapple, gibberellins increase the length of grape stalks, cytokinins help overcome apical dominance, and ethylene promotes female flowers in cucumber. The trap is pairing auxin with 'overcoming apical dominance'; auxin causes apical dominance.
Q25NEET 2023 Manipur
Which classes of algae possess pigment fucoxanthin and pigment phycoerythrin, respectively ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Brown algae (Phaeophyceae) have fucoxanthin, which gives their colour, and red algae (Rhodophyceae) have r-phycoerythrin. Chlorophyceae have mainly chlorophyll a and b.
Q26NEET 2023 Manipur
In which disorder change of single base pair in the gene for beta globin chain results in change of glutamic acid to valine ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
In sickle cell anaemia a single base change (GAG to GUG) in the β-globin gene puts valine in place of glutamic acid at the sixth position. Thalassemia is a quantitative defect in globin synthesis, not this substitution.
Q27NEET 2023 Manipur
For chemical defence against herbivores, Calotropis has :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Calotropis makes highly poisonous cardiac glycosides, so cattle and goats do not browse on it. Quinine and strychnine are plant alkaloids from other plants, and ricin comes from castor.
Q28NEET 2023 Manipur
Consider the following tissues in the stelar region of a stem showing secondary growth. (A) Primary xylem (B) Secondary xylem (C) Primary phloem (D) Secondary phloem Arrange these in the correct sequence of their position from pith towards cortex.
Not quite — the answer is A.
The cambium produces secondary xylem towards the inside and secondary phloem towards the outside, pushing primary xylem towards the pith and primary phloem towards the cortex. So from pith outwards: primary xylem, secondary xylem, secondary phloem, primary phloem. Placing secondary xylem before primary xylem reverses the inner side.
Q29NEET 2023 Manipur
Which out of the following statements is incorrect?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Cyclic photophosphorylation involves only PS I, so the statement that it uses both photosystems is incorrect. The others are true: grana lamellae carry both PS I and PS II, non-cyclic flow makes ATP and NADPH + H⁺, and stroma lamellae lack PS II and NADP reductase.
Q30NEET 2023 Manipur
In angiosperms the correct sequence of events in formation of female gametophyte in the ovule is : (A) 3 successive free nuclear divisions in functional megaspore. (B) Degeneration of 3 megaspores. (C) Meiotic division in megaspore mother cell. (D) Migration of 3 nuclei towards each pole. (E) Formation of wall resulting in seven celled embryosac. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The megaspore mother cell first divides meiotically, three of the four megaspores degenerate, the functional megaspore undergoes three free nuclear divisions, nuclei arrange at the poles, and finally walls form to give the seven-celled, eight-nucleate embryo sac. The free nuclear divisions cannot come before meiosis.
Q31NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following statements is true?
Not quite — the answer is A.
All pteridophytes (and bryophytes) show a haplo-diplontic life cycle with alternating multicellular gametophyte and sporophyte. Seed plants are diplontic, most algae are haplontic, and bryophytes are haplo-diplontic, so the other statements are false.
Q32NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Agrobacterium tumifaciens?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Agrobacterium delivers its T-DNA into plant (eukaryotic) cells; it is not used to deliver genes into prokaryotic hosts, so that statement is incorrect. Wild strains do turn plant cells into tumour cells, while the disarmed Ti plasmid used as a vector is non-pathogenic.
Q33NEET 2023 Manipur
Consider the following plant tissues : (A) Axillary buds (B) Fascicular vascular cambium (C) Interfascicular cambium (D) Cork cambium (E) Intercalary meristem Identify the lateral meristems among the above.
Not quite — the answer is B.
Lateral (secondary) meristems are the fascicular vascular cambium, interfascicular cambium and cork cambium, which add girth. Axillary buds and intercalary meristems are derived from the apical meristem and are not lateral meristems.
Q34NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as transcription. Statement II : A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in the DNA i.e., a promotor, the structural gene and a terminator. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Transcription is the copying of genetic information from one DNA strand into RNA, and a transcription unit is defined by a promoter, the structural gene and a terminator. Both statements are textbook definitions.
Q35NEET 2023 Manipur
Which scientist conducted an experiment with ³²P and ³⁵S labelled phages for demonstrating that DNA is the genetic material?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952) grew bacteriophages with ³²P (labels DNA) and ³⁵S (labels protein) and found only ³²P entering bacteria. Avery, MacLeod and McCarty showed DNA to be the transforming principle by enzyme experiments, not with labelled phages.
Q36NEET 2023 Manipur
A certain plant homozygous for yellow seeds and red flowers was crossed with a plant homozygous for green seeds and white flowers. The F₁ plants had yellow seeds and pink flowers. The F₁ plants were selfed to get F₂ progeny. Assuming independent assortment of the two characters, how many phenotypic categories are expected for these characters in the F₂ generation ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Seed colour shows complete dominance and gives 2 phenotypes (yellow, green), while flower colour shows incomplete dominance and gives 3 (red, pink, white). With independent assortment the F₂ has 2 × 3 = 6 phenotypic classes. Four would be the answer only if both traits showed complete dominance.
Q37NEET 2023 Manipur
During which stages of mitosis and meiosis, respectively does the centromere of each chromosome split ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Centromeres split and sister chromatids separate in anaphase of mitosis and in anaphase II of meiosis. In anaphase I homologous chromosomes separate while each still keeps its centromere intact.
Q38NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Plant growth is generally indeterminate because meristems keep dividing throughout life, so 'growth is generally determinate' is the incorrect statement. Increased vacuolation during elongation, abundant plasmodesmata in meristematic cells and measurability of growth are all correct.
Q39NEET 2023 Manipur
Match the following : Type of flower | Example (A) Zygomorphic (I) Mustard (B) Hypogynous (II) Plum (C) Perigynous (III) Cassia (D) Epigynous (IV) Cucumber Select the correct option :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Cassia has zygomorphic flowers, mustard has hypogynous flowers, plum has perigynous flowers and cucumber has epigynous flowers. Mustard flowers are actinomorphic, so pairing mustard with zygomorphic is wrong.
Q40NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following sexually transmitted infections are completely curable ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Syphilis (bacterial) and trichomoniasis (protozoan) are completely curable with early treatment. Hepatitis B, genital herpes and HIV infection are viral and not completely curable, and genital warts can recur.
Q41NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List - I with List - II. List - I | List - II (A) Typhoid (I) Protozoan (B) Elephantiasis (II) Salmonella (C) Ringworm (III) Aschelminthes (D) Malaria (IV) Microsporum Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi, elephantiasis by the filarial worm Wuchereria (Aschelminthes), ringworm by fungi such as Microsporum, and malaria by the protozoan Plasmodium.
Q42NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following is not a secondary metabolite?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Lecithin is a phospholipid of cell membranes and is a primary metabolite. Curcumin, morphine and anthocyanin have no role in normal primary metabolism and are secondary metabolites.
Q43NEET 2023 Manipur
House fly belongs to _____ family.
Not quite — the answer is D.
The housefly Musca domestica belongs to the family Muscidae (order Diptera). Hominidae is the human family and Cyprinidae a fish family.
Q44NEET 2023 Manipur
Select incorrect statement, regarding chemical structure of insulin.
Not quite — the answer is A.
Mature insulin has only two polypeptide chains, A and B, linked by disulphide bridges; the C-peptide is present in the prohormone (proinsulin) and is removed during maturation. So the statement that mature insulin has three chains is incorrect.
Q45NEET 2023 Manipur
Which one of the following is the quiescent stage of cell cycle?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Cells that exit G₁ and stop dividing enter the quiescent G₀ stage, where they remain metabolically active but do not proliferate. G₁ and G₂ are active growth phases of interphase.
Q46NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : Statement I : RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate. Statement II : RNA can directly code for synthesis of proteins hence can easily express the characters. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
RNA is reactive and unstable, so it mutates faster; and RNA can directly code for protein synthesis and so express characters easily, whereas DNA depends on RNA for this. Both statements are true.
Q47NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A) : Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively. Reason (R) : Dilution of filtrate takes place due to efflux of electrolytes in the medullary fluid. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
The ascending limb of Henle's loop is impermeable to water but transports electrolytes actively or passively, so as filtrate moves up, electrolytes leave into the medullary fluid and the filtrate becomes dilute. The reason describes the dilution that follows from the assertion, and the printed key treats it as the correct explanation.
Q48NEET 2023 Manipur
The Cockroach is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Cockroaches excrete nitrogenous waste mainly as uric acid through Malpighian tubules, so they are uricotelic. Ammonotelism is typical of aquatic animals.
Q49NEET 2023 Manipur
Select the sequence of steps in Respiration. (A) Diffusion of gases (O₂ and CO₂) across alveolar membrane. (B) Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ between blood and tissues. (C) Transport of gases by the blood (D) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO₂ rich alveolar air is released out. (E) Utilisation of O₂ by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO₂ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Respiration proceeds as pulmonary ventilation, diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ across the alveolar membrane, transport of gases by blood, diffusion between blood and tissues, and finally use of O₂ by cells. The other sequences start with a later step.
Q50NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following is/are cause(s) of biodiversity losses ?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Habitat loss and fragmentation, over-exploitation, alien species invasions and co-extinctions are all causes of biodiversity loss, so a single cause listed as 'only' is wrong.
Q51NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List-I with List-II. List - I | List - II (A) Contractile vacuole (I) Asterias (B) Water vascular system (II) Amoeba (C) Canal system (III) Spongilla (D) Flame cells (IV) Taenia Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Contractile vacuoles occur in Amoeba, the water vascular system in echinoderms such as Asterias, the canal system in sponges such as Spongilla, and flame cells in flatworms such as Taenia.
Q52NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List-I with List-II. List - I | List - II (A) Palm bones (I) Phalanges (B) Wrist bones (II) Metacarpals (C) Ankle bones (III) Carpals (D) Digit bones (IV) Tarsals Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Palm bones are metacarpals, wrist bones carpals, ankle bones tarsals and digit bones phalanges. The trap is confusing carpals (wrist) with tarsals (ankle).
Q53NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List - I with List - II. List - I | List - II (A) Non-medicated IUDs (I) Multiload 375 (B) Copper releasing IUDs (II) Rubber barrier (C) Hormone releasing IUDs (III) Lippes loop (D) Vaults (IV) LNG-20 Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD, Multiload 375 a copper-releasing IUD and LNG-20 a hormone-releasing IUD, while vaults are rubber barriers placed over the cervix. Swapping Multiload and LNG-20 is the usual error.
Q54NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following can act as molecular scissors?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific sequences and are called molecular scissors. DNA ligase joins fragments and is the molecular glue.
Q55NEET 2023 Manipur
Select the correct statements about sickle cell anaemia. (A) There is a change in gene for beta globin. (B) In the beta globin, there is valine in the place of Lysine. (C) It is an example of point mutation. (D) In the normal gene U is replaced by A. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Sickle cell anaemia results from a change in the β-globin gene, a point mutation (GAG to GUG) that puts valine in place of glutamic acid, not lysine. The base change is A to T in DNA (A to U in mRNA), so the statement about U replaced by A is also wrong.
Q56NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : Statement I :- Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) is another specialised procedure of in-vivo fertilisation. Statement II :- Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to inseminate female can be corrected by artificial insemination (AI). In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
ICSI, in which a sperm is injected directly into the ovum in the laboratory, is an in-vitro fertilisation technique, so Statement I is incorrect. Artificial insemination does correct infertility due to the male partner's inability to inseminate, so Statement II is true.
Q57NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List-I with List-II. List - I (ECG) | List - II (Electrical activity of heart) (A) P-wave (I) Depolarisation of ventricles (B) QRS complex (II) End of systole (C) T wave (III) Depolarisation of atria (D) End of T wave (IV) Repolarisation of ventricles Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The P-wave shows atrial depolarisation, the QRS complex ventricular depolarisation, the T-wave ventricular repolarisation, and the end of the T-wave marks the end of systole.
Q58NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List-I with List-II. List - I | List - II (A) Eosinophils (I) 6 - 8% (B) Lymphocytes (II) 2 - 3% (C) Neutrophils (III) 20 - 25% (D) Monocytes (IV) 60 - 65% Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Of total WBCs, neutrophils are about 60–65%, lymphocytes 20–25%, monocytes 6–8% and eosinophils 2–3%. The trap is giving eosinophils the neutrophil value.
Q59NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : Statement I :- Goblet cells are unicellular glands. Statement II :- Earwax is the secretion of exocrine gland. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Goblet cells of the alimentary canal are unicellular glands, and earwax is produced by ceruminous glands, which are exocrine glands. Both statements are true.
Q60NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements regarding oogenesis: Statement I :- The primary follicles get surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells, a theca and shows fluid filled cavity antrum. Now it is called secondary follicle. Statement II :- Graafian follicle ruptures to release the secondary oocyte from the ovary by the process called ovulation. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
A primary follicle surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells and a new theca becomes a secondary follicle; the follicle with a fluid-filled antrum is the tertiary follicle, so Statement I is incorrect. The Graafian follicle ruptures to release the secondary oocyte at ovulation, so Statement II is true.
Q61NEET 2023 Manipur
If there are 250 snails in a pond, and within a year their number increases to 2500 by reproduction. What should be their birth rate per snail per year ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
New snails added = 2500 − 250 = 2250; birth rate per snail per year = 2250 / 250 = 9. Taking 2500/250 = 10 counts the original snails as births.
Q62NEET 2023 Manipur
Which one of the following acts as an inducer for lac operon ?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Lactose (through allolactose) inactivates the repressor and switches on the lac operon, so it is the inducer. Glucose does not induce the operon, and galactose is only a product of lactose hydrolysis.
Q63NEET 2023 Manipur
'X' and 'Y' are the components of Binomial nomenclature. This naming system was proposed by 'Z' :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In binomial nomenclature the first word is the generic name and the second the specific epithet, a system proposed by Carolus Linnaeus. R.H. Whittaker proposed the five-kingdom classification, not binomial naming.
Q64NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following statements are correct ? (A) Reproductive health refers to total well-being in all aspects of reproduction. (B) Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex determination in India. (C) "Saheli" – a new oral contraceptive for females was developed in collaboration with ICMR (New Delhi). (D) Amniocentesis is used to determine genetic disorders and survivability of foetus. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Reproductive health means total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, amniocentesis is legally banned in India for sex determination, and it is used to detect genetic disorders and survivability of the foetus. Saheli was developed at CDRI, Lucknow, not with ICMR, so that statement is wrong.
Q65NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List-I with List-II. List - I | List - II (A) Terpenoids (I) Codeine (B) Lectins (II) Diterpenes (C) Alkaloids (III) Ricin (D) Toxins (IV) Concanavalin A Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Diterpenes are terpenoids, concanavalin A is a lectin, codeine is an alkaloid and ricin is a toxin. The trap is calling ricin a lectin and codeine a toxin.
Q66NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : Statement I :- In bacteria, the mesosomes are formed by the extensions of plasma membrane. Statement II :- The mesosomes, in bacteria, help in DNA replication and cell wall formation. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Mesosomes are infoldings or extensions of the bacterial plasma membrane, and they help in cell wall formation, DNA replication and its distribution to daughter cells, respiration and secretion. Both statements are correct.
Q67NEET 2023 Manipur
Select correct sequence of substages of Prophase-I of Meiotic division : (A) Zygotene (B) Pachytene (C) Diakinesis (D) Leptotene (E) Diplotene Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Prophase I proceeds through leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis. Sequences that put zygotene first or diakinesis before diplotene are wrong.
Q68NEET 2023 Manipur
Brainstem of human brain consists of :
Not quite — the answer is A.
The brainstem is formed by the midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata, connecting the brain with the spinal cord. Thalamus and hypothalamus are forebrain parts, and the cerebellum is not part of the brainstem.
Q69NEET 2023 Manipur
Identify the fossil of man who showed the following characteristics. (A) Brain capacity of 1400 cc (B) Used hides to protect their body (C) Buried their dead bodies In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Neanderthal man had a brain capacity of about 1400 cc, used hides to protect the body and buried the dead. Homo erectus had about 900 cc and Homo habilis about 650–800 cc.
Q70NEET 2023 Manipur
With reference to Hershey and Chase experiments. Select the correct statements. (A) Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA. (B) Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained radioactive proteins. (C) Viruses grown on radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive protein. (D) Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained radioactive DNA. (E) Viruses grown on radioactive protein contained radioactive DNA. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Phages grown with radioactive phosphorus got radioactive DNA (DNA contains phosphorus, protein does not), and phages grown with radioactive sulphur got radioactive protein (protein contains sulphur, DNA does not). The statements reversing these are false.
Q71NEET 2023 Manipur
The salient features of genetic code are : (A) The code is palindromic (B) UGA act as initiator codon (C) The code is unambiguous and specific (D) The code is nearly universal Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The genetic code is unambiguous and specific (one codon, one amino acid) and nearly universal. It is not palindromic, and AUG, not UGA, is the initiator codon; UGA is a stop codon.
Q72NEET 2023 Manipur
Arrange the events of Renin - Angiotensin mechanism in correct sequence. (A) Activation of JG cells and release of renin. (B) Angiotensin II activates release of aldosterone. (C) Fall in glomerular blood pressure. (D) Reabsorption of Na⁺ and water from distal convoluted tubule. (E) Angiotensinogen is converted to Angiotensin I and then to Angiotensin II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is A.
A fall in glomerular blood pressure activates JG cells to release renin, which converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I and then angiotensin II; angiotensin II stimulates aldosterone release, which increases Na⁺ and water reabsorption from the distal tubule. Each other sequence starts at the wrong step.
Q73NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Parathyroid hormone acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption. Statement II : Parathyroid hormone along with Thyrocalcitonin plays a significant role in carbohydrate metabolism. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Parathyroid hormone acts on bones to stimulate bone resorption (demineralisation), raising blood calcium. PTH and thyrocalcitonin together regulate calcium balance, not carbohydrate metabolism, so Statement II is false.
Q74NEET 2023 Manipur
Select the correct statements : (A) Platyhelminthes are triploblastic pseudocoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical organisms. (B) Ctenophores reproduce only sexually and fertilization is external. (C) In tapeworm, fertilization is internal but sexes are not separate. (D) Ctenophores are exclusively marine, diploblastic and bioluminescent organisms. (E) In sponges, fertilization is external and development is direct. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Ctenophores reproduce only sexually with external fertilisation, are exclusively marine, diploblastic and bioluminescent, and tapeworms are hermaphrodite with internal fertilisation. Platyhelminthes are acoelomate, not pseudocoelomate, and sponges have internal fertilisation with indirect development, so those statements are false.
Q75NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List-I with List-II. List - I | List - II (A) Gene therapy (I) Separation of DNA fragments (B) RNA interference (II) Diagnostic test for AIDS (C) ELISA (III) Cellular defence (D) Gel Electrophoresis (IV) Allows correction of a gene defect. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Gene therapy allows correction of a gene defect, RNA interference is a cellular defence mechanism, ELISA is a diagnostic test for AIDS, and gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments.
Q76NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Golgi apparatus ? (A) It is the important site of formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids. (B) It produces cellular energy in the form of ATP. (C) It modifies the protein synthesized by ribosomes on ER. (D) It facilitates the transport of ions. (E) It provides mechanical support. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The Golgi apparatus modifies proteins made by ribosomes on the ER and is the main site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids. ATP production is the role of mitochondria, and mechanical support is given by the cytoskeleton.
Q77NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : Statement I : In cockroach, the forewings are transparent and prothoracic in origin. Statement II : In cockroach, the hind wings are opaque, leathery and mesothoracic in origin. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
In cockroach the forewings (tegmina) arise from the mesothorax and are opaque, dark and leathery, while the hind wings arise from the metathorax and are transparent and membranous. Both statements mix up these features, so both are false.
Q78NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List-I with List-II. List - I | List - II (A) Columnar epithelium (I) Ducts of glands (B) Ciliated epithelium (II) Inner lining of stomach and intestine (C) Squamous epithelium (III) Inner lining of bronchioles (D) Cuboidal epithelium (IV) Endothelium Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Columnar epithelium lines the stomach and intestine, ciliated epithelium the bronchioles, squamous epithelium forms the endothelium of blood vessels, and cuboidal epithelium lines the ducts of glands.
Q79NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List-I with List-II. List - I | List - II (A) Cytokine barriers (I) Mucus coating of respiratory tract (B) Cellular barriers (II) Interferons (C) Physiological barriers (III) Neutrophils and Macrophages (D) Physical barriers (IV) Tears and Saliva Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Interferons are cytokine barriers, neutrophils and macrophages are cellular barriers, tears and saliva (along with stomach acid) are physiological barriers, and the mucus coating of the respiratory tract is a physical barrier.
Q80NEET 2023 Manipur
Select the correct statement/s with respect to mechanism of sex determination in Grasshopper. (A) It is an example of female heterogamety. (B) Male produces two different types of gametes either with or without X chromosome. (C) Total number of chromosomes (autosomes and sex chromosomes) is same in both males and females. (D) All eggs bear an additional X chromosome besides the autosomes. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Grasshoppers show XO sex determination: males have one X fewer than females and produce two kinds of sperm, with or without X, while all eggs carry an X besides the autosomes. This is male heterogamety, and the total chromosome number differs between the sexes.
Q81NEET 2023 Manipur
Arrange the sequence of different hormones for their role during gametogenesis. (A) Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and secretion of Androgen (B) Gonadotropin releasing hormone from hypothalamus (C) Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis (D) Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of spermiogenesis (E) Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
GnRH from the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to release gonadotropins; LH stimulates androgen synthesis by Leydig cells, androgens stimulate spermatogenesis, and FSH acts on Sertoli cells to help spermiogenesis. Sequences that begin with androgen or FSH skip the hypothalamic trigger.
Biology: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 16 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
16 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List - I with List - II List - I | List - II (A) Hydrarch succession (I) Gradual change in the species composition (B) Xerarch succession (II) Faster and climax reached quickly (C) Ecological succession (III) Lichens to mesic conditions (D) Secondary succession (IV) Phytoplankton to mesic conditions Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Hydrarch succession starts in water with phytoplankton and moves to mesic conditions, xerarch starts on bare rock with lichens, ecological succession in general is the gradual change in species composition of an area, and secondary succession is faster because soil is already present. Pairing xerarch with 'faster' is wrong; speed is the feature of secondary succession.
Q2NEET 2023 Manipur
The amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, potassium and calcium present in the soil at any given time is referred to as :
Not quite — the answer is A.
The amount of nutrients such as C, N, P and Ca present in the soil at a given time is called the standing state. Standing crop is different: it is the mass of living material at each trophic level at a given time.
Q3NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude and experiences "Altitude Sickness" with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. Reason (R) : Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
At high altitude the low atmospheric pressure means the body does not get enough oxygen, which causes altitude sickness with nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations. The reason is therefore true and directly explains the assertion.
Q4NEET 2023 Manipur
Nitrates and phosphates flowing from agricultural farms into water bodies are a significant cause of :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Nitrates and phosphates from fertiliser runoff enrich water bodies with nutrients and cause algal blooms and accelerated ageing of the water body, which is eutrophication. Humification and mineralisation are steps of decomposition in soil.
Q5NEET 2023 Manipur
Identify the correct statements regarding Mass flow hypothesis. (A) Mass flow is faster than diffusion. (B) Mass flow is the result of pressure difference between the end points. (C) Different substances involved in mass flow move at different paces. (D) Mass flow can result through either a positive or a negative hydrostatic pressure gradient. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Mass flow is faster than diffusion, results from a pressure difference between two points, and can be driven by a positive or negative hydrostatic pressure gradient. In mass flow all substances move together en masse, so they do not move at different paces.
Q6NEET 2023 Manipur
What will happen if fresh water lake gets contaminated by addition of polluted water with high BOD?
Not quite — the answer is A.
High-BOD water carries much organic matter, which microbes decompose using dissolved oxygen, so the dissolved oxygen of the lake falls. This leads to death of fish and other aquatic animals rather than an increase in them.
Q7NEET 2023 Manipur
During symport two different molecules move across the membrane :
Not quite — the answer is C.
In symport two different molecules cross the membrane in the same direction using the same carrier protein. Movement of two molecules in opposite directions on one carrier is antiport.
Q8NEET 2023 Manipur
Which of the following mineral ion is not remobilized in plants?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Calcium is a structural part of the cell wall (calcium pectate) and is not remobilised, so its deficiency first appears in young tissues. Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium are readily remobilised from older to younger leaves.
Q9NEET 2023 Manipur
Match Column I with Column II. Column - I | Column - II (A) Nitrococcus (I) Denitrification (B) Rhizobium (II) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite (C) Thiobacillus (III) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate (D) Nitrobacter (IV) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
Not quite — the answer is C.
Nitrococcus oxidises ammonia to nitrite, Rhizobium fixes atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia, Thiobacillus carries out denitrification, and Nitrobacter oxidises nitrite to nitrate.
Q10NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The process of translocation through phloem is unidirectional but through xylem, it is bidirectional. Statement II : The most readily mobilized elements are phosphorus, sulphur, nitrogen and potassium. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Translocation through phloem is bidirectional (source to sink in either direction), while flow in xylem is unidirectional upwards, so Statement I has them reversed. Phosphorus, sulphur, nitrogen and potassium are indeed the most readily mobilised elements.
Q11NEET 2023 Manipur
Given below are two statements : Statement I :- The nose contains mucus – coated receptors which are specialised for receiving the sense of smell and are called olfactory receptors. Statement II :- Wall of the eye ball has three layers. The external layer is called choroid (dense connective tissue), middle layer is sclera (thin pigmented layer) and internal layer is retina (ganglion cells, bipolar cells and photoreceptor cells). In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
The nose has mucus-coated olfactory receptors specialised for smell, so Statement I is true. In the eyeball the outer layer is the sclera (dense connective tissue) and the middle layer the choroid (pigmented), so Statement II has them reversed.
Q12NEET 2023 Manipur
Match List-I with List-II. List - I | List - II (A) Deforestation (I) Responsible for heating of Earth's surface and atmosphere (B) Reforestation (II) Conversion of forested areas to non-forested areas (C) Green-house effect (III) Natural ageing of lake by nutrient enrichment of its water (D) Eutrophication (IV) Process of restoring a forest that once existed but was removed Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Deforestation converts forested areas to non-forested ones, reforestation restores a forest that once existed, the greenhouse effect heats Earth's surface and atmosphere, and eutrophication is the natural ageing of a lake by nutrient enrichment.
Q13NEET 2023 Manipur
Diacetyl morphine is also called as :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Diacetylmorphine is heroin, commonly called smack, an opioid made by acetylation of morphine. Crack is a form of cocaine, and amphetamines and barbiturates are different drug classes.
Q14NEET 2023 Manipur
Select the correct sequential steps regarding absorption of fatty acids and glycerol, in intestine. (A) Micelles are reformed into small protein coated fat globules called chylomicrons. (B) Micelles move into intestinal mucosa. (C) Fatty acids and glycerol are incorporated into small droplets called micelles. (D) Lacteals release the absorbed substances into blood stream. (E) Chylomicrons are transported into lacteals. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Fatty acids and glycerol are first packed into micelles, which move into the intestinal mucosa, are re-formed into protein-coated chylomicrons, pass into lacteals and finally reach the blood stream.
Q15NEET 2023 Manipur
Select the correct statements regarding dissolved Oxygen and Biochemical Oxygen Demand. (A) BOD is inversely related to dissolved oxygen. (B) Low dissolved oxygen and high BOD lead to loss of aquatic life. (C) High BOD leads to high dissolved oxygen. (D) Both BOD and dissolved oxygen are indicator of health of a water body. (E) Both BOD and dissolved oxygen are affected by amount of organic matter in the water body. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
BOD rises as dissolved oxygen falls, low DO with high BOD kills aquatic life, both are indicators of water quality, and both depend on the amount of organic matter. High BOD lowers dissolved oxygen, so that statement is false.
Q16NEET 2023 Manipur
Select the incorrect statement with respect to Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET) Technology.
Not quite — the answer is A.
In MOET the fertilised eggs are recovered non-surgically at the 8–32 cell stage, not 4–6 cells, before transfer to surrogate mothers. Super-ovulation by hormones, mating with an elite bull or artificial insemination, and rapid increase of herd size are all correct.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2023 Manipur Biology
- Molecular Basis of Inheritance8 Q
- Principles of Inheritance and Variation6 Q
- Biomolecules4 Q
- Cell Cycle and Cell Division4 Q
- Biotechnology: Principles and Processes4 Q
- Reproductive Health4 Q
- Structural Organisation in Animals4 Q
- Morphology of Flowering Plants3 Q
- Photosynthesis in Higher Plants3 Q
- Biodiversity and Conservation3 Q
- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants3 Q
- Plant Growth and Development3 Q
- Anatomy of Flowering Plants3 Q
- Organisms and Populations3 Q
- Plant Kingdom3 Q
- Respiration in Plants2 Q
- Human Health and Disease2 Q
- The Living World2 Q
- Biotechnology and Its Applications2 Q
- Excretory Products and Their Elimination2 Q
- Animal Kingdom2 Q
- Body Fluids and Circulation2 Q
- Human Reproduction2 Q
- Cell: The Unit of Life2 Q
- Breathing and Exchange of Gases1 Q
- Locomotion and Movement1 Q
- Neural Control and Coordination1 Q
- Evolution1 Q
- Chemical Coordination and Integration1 Q
About this paper
How many questions from NEET 2023 Manipur are on this page?
184 questions (Physics 39, Chemistry 48, Biology 97). Questions that need a diagram we could not reproduce, or whose wording in the source was unclear, are left out.
Are these the original questions?
Yes. The questions and options are as set in the NEET 2023 Manipur paper, conducted by NTA. The answer to every question was checked by the RankUp team, and the explanations are RankUp's own.
Is NEET 2023 Manipur useful for NEET 2027?
Yes. The NEET syllabus is built on the same NCERT books. 30 questions here are on topics NCERT has since dropped; they are listed separately so you can skip them.
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