NEET 2022 Question PaperPhysics, Chemistry and Biology, with checked answers and solutions
By the RankUp team, founded by Dr. Deepak Sahu (MBBS Gold Medalist, NEET PG AIR 1731) · Updated
183 questions from the NEET 2022 paper, conducted by NTA. Tap an option to check your answer and read why it is right. Each subject has a free PDF with the answer key and explanations.
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- NEET 2022
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- Physics
- 40 questions
- Chemistry
- 46 questions
- Biology
- 97 questions
NEET 2022 Physics questions
39 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2022
Match List - I with List - II List - I (Electromagnetic waves): (a) AM radio waves (b) Microwaves (c) Infrared radiations (d) X-rays List - II (Wavelength): (i) 10⁻¹⁰ m (ii) 10² m (iii) 10⁻² m (iv) 10⁻⁴ m Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Not quite — the answer is D.
Wavelength decreases from radio waves to X-rays: AM radio ~10² m, microwaves ~10⁻² m (cm range), infrared ~10⁻⁴ m (sub-mm to μm), X-rays ~10⁻¹⁰ m (Å). So (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i).
Q2NEET 2022
The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s² is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Δω = (3120 − 1200) rev/min = 1920 rev/min = 1920 × 2π/60 rad/s = 64π rad/s. α = Δω/t = 64π/16 = 4π rad/s². Forgetting the conversion from rpm to rad/s gives a wrong multiple of π.
Q3NEET 2022
A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Lens maker's formula: 1/f = (μ − 1)(1/R₁ − 1/R₂) = 0.5 × (1/0.20 + 1/0.20) m⁻¹ = 0.5 × 10 = 5 m⁻¹. So f = 20 cm and P = +5 D. +20 D comes from confusing focal length in cm with power.
Q4NEET 2022
As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance
Not quite — the answer is C.
In metals, more frequent collisions of electrons with vibrating ions at higher temperature reduce relaxation time, so resistance rises. In semiconductors, many more charge carriers are generated thermally, which outweighs the collision effect, so resistance falls (negative temperature coefficient).
Q5NEET 2022
The dimensions [MLT⁻²A⁻²] belong to the
Not quite — the answer is C.
From F = μ₀I₁I₂l/(2πd), μ₀ = F/(I²) × (length/length) has dimensions [MLT⁻²]/[A²] = [MLT⁻²A⁻²]. Magnetic flux is [ML²T⁻²A⁻¹], self inductance [ML²T⁻²A⁻²] and permittivity [M⁻¹L⁻³T⁴A²].
Q6NEET 2022
In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be
Not quite — the answer is C.
A half-wave rectifier passes one half-cycle of each input cycle, so the output repeats once per input cycle: 60 Hz. 120 Hz is the output frequency of a full-wave rectifier.
Q7NEET 2022
If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is
Not quite — the answer is C.
v = √(T/μ), so v ∝ √T. With T doubled, v₂ = √2 v₁, and v₁ : v₂ = 1 : √2. √2 : 1 is the inverse (final to initial).
Q8NEET 2022
A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Masses are 2m/5, 2m/5 and m/5. The two equal fragments have perpendicular momenta (2m/5)v each, with resultant (2m/5)v√2. Momentum conservation gives (m/5)v₃ = 2√2 mv/5, so v₃ = 2√2 v. √2 v ignores the smaller mass of the third fragment.
Q9NEET 2022
Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Taking the 10 kg mass at the origin: x_cm = (10 × 0 + 20 × 10)/(10 + 20) = 200/30 = 20/3 m. The centre of mass lies nearer the heavier mass; 10/3 m is its distance from the 20 kg mass.
Q10NEET 2022
If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble
Not quite — the answer is A.
Pressure inside a soap bubble is P₀ + 4T/r. As the bubble expands, r increases, so the excess pressure 4T/r and hence the inside pressure decrease, while always staying above atmospheric pressure.
Q11NEET 2022
An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms⁻¹. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is : (g = 10 ms⁻²)
Not quite — the answer is C.
At constant speed, motor force = mg + friction = 2000 × 10 + 3000 = 23000 N. Power = Fv = 23000 × 1.5 = 34500 W. 23000 is the force in newtons, not the power.
Q12NEET 2022
The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is
Not quite — the answer is C.
No work is done in moving a charge along an equipotential surface, so the field has no component along it. Electric field lines are therefore always perpendicular (90°) to equipotential surfaces.
Q13NEET 2022
A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is
Not quite — the answer is B.
n = 100 turns/mm = 10⁵ turns/m. B = μ₀nI = 4π × 10⁻⁷ × 10⁵ × 1 = 4π × 10⁻² T = 12.56 × 10⁻² T. The radius of the solenoid does not matter for a long solenoid; using 100 turns per cm would give the 10⁻⁴ answer.
Q14NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only. Statement II : Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law of charge q, with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source, q. In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Biot–Savart's law gives dB due to a current element I dl, so Statement I is correct. It is analogous to Coulomb's law, but the source I dl is a vector and the charge q is a scalar; Statement II swaps these, so it is incorrect.
Q15NEET 2022
The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is
Not quite — the answer is B.
I(normal axis) = MR²/2 so k₁ = R/√2; I(diameter) = MR²/4 so k₂ = R/2. k₁/k₂ = (R/√2)/(R/2) = 2/√2 = √2, i.e. √2 : 1. 2 : 1 is the ratio of the moments of inertia, not the radii of gyration.
Q16NEET 2022
The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to
Not quite — the answer is C.
For a sinusoidal source V_rms = V₀/√2, so V₀ = √2 V_rms. 1/√2 times rms reverses the relation.
Q17NEET 2022
The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is
Not quite — the answer is A.
E = P × t = 100 × 10³ W × 3600 s = 3.6 × 10⁸ J = 36 × 10⁷ J. 1 × 10⁵ J is just the power value in watts, ignoring the time.
Q18NEET 2022
In a Young's double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is
Not quite — the answer is D.
Fringe width β = λD/d, so for a fixed region the number of fringes n ∝ 1/λ: n₁λ₁ = n₂λ₂ gives n₂ = 8 × 600/400 = 12. Fewer fringes would mean a longer wavelength.
Q19NEET 2022
A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is
Not quite — the answer is B.
With the plane perpendicular to B, the area vector is parallel to B, so Φ = BA cos 0° = 0.5 × 1² = 0.5 Wb. Zero flux would apply if the plane were parallel to the field; the resistance is irrelevant.
Q20NEET 2022
Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 Ω to that in 200 Ω in a given time is
Not quite — the answer is B.
In parallel both have the same voltage, so heat H = V²t/R ∝ 1/R. H₁₀₀ : H₂₀₀ = 200 : 100 = 2 : 1. 1 : 2 would apply for series connection (H ∝ R).
Q21NEET 2022
The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1ˢᵗ, 2ⁿᵈ, 3ʳᵈ and 4ᵗʰ second
Not quite — the answer is C.
Distance in the nth second from rest: sₙ = (g/2)(2n − 1), giving 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 for n = 1 to 4. 1 : 4 : 9 : 16 is the ratio of total distances after 1, 2, 3, 4 s.
Q22NEET 2022
A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Field intensity = F/m = 3.0 N / 0.060 kg = 50 N/kg. Using the mass in grams without conversion gives 0.05.
Q23NEET 2022
A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index √3, at an angle 60°. The angle between the refracted and reflected rays would be
Not quite — the answer is C.
Snell's law: sin r = sin 60°/√3 = (√3/2)/√3 = 1/2, so r = 30°. The reflected ray makes 60° with the normal; the angle between reflected and refracted rays = 180° − 60° − 30° = 90° (this is Brewster incidence, tan 60° = √3).
Q24NEET 2022
When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity εᵣ and relative permeability μᵣ, the velocity of light, v is given by (c-velocity of light in vacuum)
Not quite — the answer is D.
v = 1/√(με) = 1/√(μ₀μᵣε₀εᵣ) = c/√(εᵣμᵣ), since c = 1/√(μ₀ε₀). The ratio forms of μᵣ and εᵣ are dimensionless and cannot be a speed.
Q25NEET 2022
Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R₁ and R₂ (R₁ >> R₂) have equal charges. The potential would be
Not quite — the answer is B.
The potential of an isolated charged sphere is V = kQ/R. With equal Q, the sphere of smaller radius has the larger potential. Potential depends only on charge and radius, not on the material.
Q26NEET 2022
A copper wire of length 10 m and radius (10⁻²/√π) m has electrical resistance of 10 Ω. The current density in the wire for an electric field strength of 10 (V/m) is
Not quite — the answer is D.
Area A = πr² = π × 10⁻⁴/π = 10⁻⁴ m². Resistivity ρ = RA/L = 10 × 10⁻⁴/10 = 10⁻⁴ Ω m. Current density J = E/ρ = 10/10⁻⁴ = 10⁵ A/m².
Q27NEET 2022
Plane angle and solid angle have
Not quite — the answer is A.
Plane angle (radian) and solid angle (steradian) are ratios of lengths or areas, so they are dimensionless, yet they have named units rad and sr. A quantity cannot have dimensions without units.
Q28NEET 2022
Let T₁ and T₂ be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms, respectively. According to the Bohr's model of an atom, the ratio T₁ : T₂ is
Not quite — the answer is D.
First excited state is n = 2 and second excited state is n = 3. Energy ∝ 1/n², so T₁ : T₂ = (1/4) : (1/9) = 9 : 4. 4 : 1 wrongly takes n = 1 and n = 2.
Q29NEET 2022
Match List - I with List - II List - I: (a) Gravitational constant (G) (b) Gravitational potential energy (c) Gravitational potential (d) Gravitational intensity List - II: (i) [L²T⁻²] (ii) [M⁻¹L³T⁻²] (iii) [LT⁻²] (iv) [ML²T⁻²] Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Not quite — the answer is B.
G = Fr²/m² gives [M⁻¹L³T⁻²]; potential energy is energy, [ML²T⁻²]; potential is energy per unit mass, [L²T⁻²]; intensity is force per unit mass, [LT⁻²]. So (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).
Q30NEET 2022
Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is :
Not quite — the answer is A.
T ∝ √L, so T_long : T_short = √121 : √100 = 11 : 10. They are again in phase when n_short × 10 = n_long × 11 (in the same time unit); the smallest whole numbers are n_short = 11 and n_long = 10. So the shorter pendulum makes 11 vibrations; 10 is the count for the longer one.
Q31NEET 2022
The area of a rectangular field (in m²) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct significant digits is
Not quite — the answer is D.
55.3 × 25 = 1382.5 m². In multiplication the result keeps the least number of significant figures among the factors; 25 has two, so the area is 1.4 × 10³ = 14 × 10² m². 138 × 10¹ keeps three figures, which is one too many.
Q32NEET 2022
A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms⁻¹, at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be
Not quite — the answer is B.
At the highest point only the horizontal component remains. With 60° measured from the vertical, the horizontal component is 10 sin 60° = 5√3 m s⁻¹. 5 m s⁻¹ wrongly measures the angle from the horizontal.
Q33NEET 2022
From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Inside (r < R), the enclosed current is I r²/R², so B = μ₀Ir/(2πR²), increasing linearly with r. Outside (r > R), all current is enclosed and B = μ₀I/(2πr), falling as 1/r, not linearly.
Q34NEET 2022
A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 μF, resistance 50 Ω is connected to an ac source of voltage, V = 200sin(100t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is ν₀ and the frequency of the ac source is ν, then
Not quite — the answer is B.
ω₀ = 1/√(LC) = 1/√(10 × 10 × 10⁻⁶) = 1/√(10⁻⁴) = 100 rad/s, so ν₀ = 100/(2π) = 50/π Hz. The source has ω = 100 rad/s, so ν = 50/π Hz too. Taking ω = 100 directly as 100 Hz is the trap.
Q35NEET 2022
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring. Reason (R) : A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
When a coil spring is stretched, the wire is twisted rather than elongated, so its extension is governed by the shear (rigidity) modulus; the assertion is true. Steel has a higher elastic modulus and tensile strength than copper, so the reason is false.
Q36NEET 2022
A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad s⁻¹. If the vertical component of earth's magnetic field at that place is 2 × 10⁻⁵ T and electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56 Ω, then the maximum induced current in the coil will be
Not quite — the answer is C.
Rotation about a horizontal diameter changes the flux of the vertical field component. ε_max = NBAω = 1000 × 2 × 10⁻⁵ × π(10)² × 2 = 0.02 × 314.16 × 2 = 12.566 V. I_max = 12.566/12.56 ≈ 1 A.
Q37NEET 2022
The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is
Not quite — the answer is D.
With no intermolecular forces the water behaves as an ideal gas. Moles = 4500 g / 18 g mol⁻¹ = 250 mol; at STP V = 250 × 22.4 L = 5600 L = 5.6 m³. 5.6 × 10³ forgets to convert litres to m³.
Q38NEET 2022
Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are 1.5 × 10⁸ m/s and 2.0 × 10⁸ m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Medium A, where light is slower, is denser. sin C = n_B/n_A = v_A/v_B = 1.5/2.0 = 0.75, so C = sin⁻¹(0.750). Critical angle is defined through sine, not tangent.
Q39NEET 2022
A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Nuclear radius R = R₀A^(1/3): R₁ : R₂ = 125^(1/3) : 64^(1/3) = 5 : 4. 25 : 16 is the ratio of their surface areas, and 4 : 5 is the reversed order.
Physics: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 1 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
1 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2022
In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is ²²₁₁Na → X + e⁺ + ν
Not quite — the answer is C.
In β⁺ decay a proton becomes a neutron, emitting a positron and a neutrino: mass number stays 22 and atomic number falls from 11 to 10. So X is ²²₁₀Ne. ²²₁₂Mg would be the product of β⁻ decay.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2022 Physics
- System of Particles and Rotational Motion3 Q
- Ray Optics and Optical Instruments3 Q
- Current Electricity3 Q
- Units and Measurements3 Q
- Moving Charges and Magnetism3 Q
- Electromagnetic Waves2 Q
- Work, Energy and Power2 Q
- Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance2 Q
- Alternating Current2 Q
- Electromagnetic Induction2 Q
- Gravitation2 Q
- Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits1 Q
- Waves1 Q
- Laws of Motion1 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Fluids1 Q
- Wave Optics1 Q
- Motion in a Straight Line1 Q
- Atoms1 Q
- Oscillations1 Q
- Motion in a Plane1 Q
- Mechanical Properties of Solids1 Q
- Kinetic Theory1 Q
- Nuclei1 Q
NEET 2022 Chemistry questions
33 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2022
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A) : ICl is more reactive than I₂ Reason (R) : I-Cl bond is weaker than I-I bond. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Interhalogen compounds such as ICl are generally more reactive than the parent halogens (except F₂) because the polar I–Cl bond is weaker than the homonuclear I–I bond. The weaker bond is exactly why ICl reacts more readily, so both statements are true and the reason explains the assertion.
Q2NEET 2022
Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?
Not quite — the answer is D.
An aromatic species must be cyclic, planar and fully conjugated with (4n+2) π electrons. Cyclopentadienyl anion (6π), tropylium cation (6π) and cyclopropenyl cation (2π) all satisfy this. Cycloheptatriene has an sp³ CH₂ group that breaks the cyclic conjugation, so it is not aromatic.
Q3NEET 2022
The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is
Not quite — the answer is A.
Using IUPAC digit roots 1 = un, 1 = un, 9 = enn and the suffix -ium, element 119 is un-un-enn-ium = ununennium. Unununnium corresponds to 111 and ununoctium to 118.
Q4NEET 2022
The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Almost all enzymes are globular proteins, not polysaccharides, so that statement is incorrect. Enzymes are indeed biocatalysts that lower activation energy and are highly specific for their substrate and reaction.
Q5NEET 2022
The IUPAC name of the complex - [Ag(H₂O)₂][Ag(CN)₂] is:
Not quite — the answer is D.
The cation is [Ag(H₂O)₂]⁺ (water neutral, so Ag is +1) and is named first: diaquasilver(I). The anion is [Ag(CN)₂]⁻ (two CN⁻, so Ag is +1) and takes the -ate ending with the Latin name: dicyanidoargentate(I). Silver is +1 in both, so names with silver(II) are wrong.
Q6NEET 2022
Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of
Not quite — the answer is B.
Gd is [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s²; after the third electron (the 5d¹) is removed, Gd³⁺ has the half-filled 4f⁷ configuration. The large exchange energy stabilising 4f⁷ makes this removal easy, giving a low third ionisation enthalpy. Size or electronegativity would not lower it in this way.
Q7NEET 2022
Amongst the following which one will have maximum 'lone pair - lone pair' electron repulsions?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Lone pairs on the central atom: ClF₃ has 2, IF₅ has 1, SF₄ has 1 and XeF₂ has 3. XeF₂, with three lone pairs in the equatorial plane of a trigonal bipyramid, has the greatest number of lone pair–lone pair repulsions. IF₅ and SF₄ have a single lone pair and so no lone pair–lone pair repulsion.
Q8NEET 2022
Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?
Not quite — the answer is D.
In B₂H₆ each boron is sp³ hybridised: two sp³ orbitals form terminal 2c–2e B–H bonds and two take part in the two 3c–2e B–H–B bridge bonds. The four terminal H atoms and both B atoms are coplanar, with the bridging hydrogens above and below that plane. So the claim of sp² boron is the incorrect statement.
Q9NEET 2022
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole - dipole interactions. Statement II : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the given below
Not quite — the answer is A.
The polar C=O group gives aldehydes and ketones dipole–dipole association, so they boil higher than hydrocarbons of similar mass. They cannot form intermolecular hydrogen bonds with each other, so they boil lower than alcohols of similar mass. Both statements are correct.
Q10NEET 2022
The incorrect statement regarding chirality is
Not quite — the answer is C.
Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images, so calling them superimposable is the incorrect statement. SN1 via a planar carbocation gives (ideally) a racemic mixture, SN2 backside attack inverts configuration, and a racemic mixture shows zero rotation because the two rotations cancel.
Q11NEET 2022
Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Electrophilic chlorination of benzene with Cl₂ and anhydrous FeCl₃ (Lewis acid) gives chlorobenzene. Phenol cannot be diazotised (diazotisation needs an –NH₂ group), benzene does not react with HCl, and heating aniline with HCl only gives anilinium chloride.
Q12NEET 2022
Identify the incorrect statement from the following.
Not quite — the answer is D.
dxy, dyz and dzx have the same four-lobed shape, and dx²−y² is also four-lobed, but dz² has two lobes along z with a doughnut ring in the xy-plane, so dx²−y² and dz² are not similar in shape. The other statements are true: 5d orbitals are larger than 4d, shapes are the same across shells, and the five d orbitals are degenerate in a free atom.
Q13NEET 2022
The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Kjeldahl's method converts nitrogen to ammonium sulphate by digestion with conc. H₂SO₄, which fails for nitro and azo groups and for nitrogen in a ring such as pyridine. Aniline has an amino group that is converted completely, so its nitrogen can be estimated.
Q14NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group. Statement II : o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
The electron-withdrawing –NO₂ group stabilises the phenoxide ion, so every nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol. The effect depends on position: o- and p-nitro groups act by –R and –I effects while m-nitro acts only by –I, so the three isomers have different pKa values. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
Q15NEET 2022
At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu²⁺/Cu, Zn²⁺/Zn, Fe²⁺/Fe and Ag⁺/Ag are 0.34 V, −0.76 V, −0.44 V and 0.80 V, respectively. On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?
Not quite — the answer is D.
A metal can displace another only if its reduction potential is lower. For Ag reducing Cu²⁺: E°cell = E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) − E°(Ag⁺/Ag) = 0.34 − 0.80 = −0.46 V, so that reaction cannot occur. Zn (−0.76 V) reducing Cu²⁺ (+1.10 V), Fe (−0.44 V) reducing Cu²⁺ (+0.78 V) and Zn reducing Fe²⁺ (+0.32 V) all have positive E°cell.
Q16NEET 2022
Given below are two statements Statement I : Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO₂ to give unstable diazonium salts. Statement II : Primary aromatic amines react with HNO₂ to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Not quite — the answer is C.
Aliphatic diazonium salts are highly unstable and decompose at once to give N₂ and alcohols. Arenediazonium salts are stable only at low temperature (about 273–278 K) and decompose on warming, so they are not stable above 300 K. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
Q17NEET 2022
In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is
Not quite — the answer is B.
Molality = moles of solute / kg of solvent, so mass of solvent = 0.5 mol / 1 mol kg⁻¹ = 0.5 kg = 500 g. Molality is defined by mass of solvent, not volume, so 500 mL is the trap; 1000 g would hold 1 mol of solute.
Q18NEET 2022
RMgX + CO₂ —(dry ether)→ Y —(H₃O⁺)→ RCOOH What is Y in the above reaction?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The carbanion-like R of the Grignard reagent adds to the carbon of CO₂, giving the halomagnesium carboxylate RCOO⁻Mg⁺X. Acid hydrolysis of this salt gives RCOOH. R₃CO⁻Mg⁺X is the type of intermediate formed from ketones and gives tertiary alcohols, not acids.
Q19NEET 2022
Given below are half cell reactions: MnO₄⁻ + 8H⁺ + 5e⁻ → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O, E°(Mn²⁺/MnO₄⁻) = −1.510 V ½O₂ + 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂O, E°(O₂/H₂O) = +1.223 V Will the permanganate ion, MnO₄⁻ liberate O₂ from water in the presence of an acid?
Not quite — the answer is A.
E°(Mn²⁺/MnO₄⁻) = −1.510 V is an oxidation potential, so the reduction potential of MnO₄⁻/Mn²⁺ is +1.510 V. With MnO₄⁻ reduced at the cathode and water oxidised to O₂ at the anode, E°cell = 1.510 − 1.223 = +0.287 V. A positive value means the reaction is feasible, so permanganate can liberate O₂; adding the two values (2.733 V) is the trap.
Q20NEET 2022
What mass of 95% pure CaCO₃ will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction? CaCO₃(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl₂(aq) + CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l) [Calculate upto second place of decimal point]
Not quite — the answer is B.
Moles of HCl = 0.050 L × 0.5 M = 0.025 mol, so CaCO₃ needed = 0.0125 mol × 100 g mol⁻¹ = 1.25 g of pure CaCO₃. Since the sample is only 95% pure, mass required = 1.25/0.95 = 1.3158 ≈ 1.32 g. 1.25 g ignores the purity correction.
Q21NEET 2022
The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is [Given pKa of CH₃COOH = 4.57]
Not quite — the answer is A.
This is an acidic buffer: pH = pKa + log([salt]/[acid]). Equal volumes are mixed, so the ratio is 0.10/0.01 = 10 and pH = 4.57 + log 10 = 5.57. 4.57 would be the answer only for equal concentrations of salt and acid.
Q22NEET 2022
Match List-I with List-II. List - I (Products formed): (a) Cyanohydrin (b) Acetal (c) Schiff's base (d) Oxime List - II (Reaction of carbonyl compound with): (i) NH₂OH (ii) RNH₂ (iii) Alcohol (iv) HCN Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Not quite — the answer is D.
Carbonyl compounds add HCN to give cyanohydrins, react with alcohols (dry HCl) to give acetals, condense with primary amines RNH₂ to give Schiff's bases (imines), and with hydroxylamine NH₂OH to give oximes. So (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).
Q23NEET 2022
Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?
Not quite — the answer is D.
O₂⁺ has 15 electrons; its configuration ends in π*2p¹, so it has one unpaired electron and is paramagnetic, making the diamagnetic claim incorrect. The bond orders 2.5, 2, 1.5, 1 are correct, C₂ has π2px² π2py² (four electrons in two degenerate π orbitals), and H₂⁺ has a single electron.
Q24NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I : In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl₂, known as Lucas Reagent. Statement II : Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Lucas reagent (conc. HCl + ZnCl₂) distinguishes alcohols by how fast they form insoluble alkyl chlorides. Tertiary alcohols react fastest (immediate turbidity) through a stable carbocation, while primary alcohols do not give turbidity at room temperature. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
Q25NEET 2022
If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He⁺ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li²⁺ ion?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Bohr radius rₙ = a₀n²/Z. For He⁺ (n = 2, Z = 2): 105.8 = a₀ × 4/2, so a₀ = 52.9 pm. For Li²⁺ (n = 3, Z = 3): r = 52.9 × 9/3 = 158.7 pm. The same number in Å is wrong by a factor of 100 in units.
Q26NEET 2022
For a first order reaction A → Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min⁻¹ is
Not quite — the answer is B.
For first order, k = (2.303/t) log([A]₀/[A]) = (2.303/5 min) × log(0.1/0.001) = 0.4606 × 2 = 0.9212 min⁻¹. 0.4606 forgets that log 100 = 2.
Q27NEET 2022
The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is BrCH₂–CH₂–CH(OH)–CH(CH₃)–CH(Cl)–CH₃
Not quite — the answer is A.
The parent chain has six carbons and the –OH (principal group) must get the lowest locant, so numbering starts at the CH₂Br end: Br on C1, OH on C3, CH₃ on C4, Cl on C5. Substituent prefixes are written alphabetically (bromo, chloro, methyl), giving 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol. Placing methyl before chloro breaks the alphabetical rule, and numbering from the other end gives the –OH the higher locant 4.
Q28NEET 2022
The product formed from the following reaction sequence is C₆H₅CN —(i) LiAlH₄, H₂O; (ii) NaNO₂ + HCl; (iii) H₂O→ ?
Not quite — the answer is D.
LiAlH₄ reduces benzonitrile to benzylamine, C₆H₅CH₂NH₂. Nitrous acid converts this primary aliphatic-type amine into an unstable benzyldiazonium ion, which loses N₂ in water to give benzyl alcohol. The benzyldiazonium salt is not isolable, unlike arenediazonium salts.
Q29NEET 2022
The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes (i) [Ni(H₂O)₂(en)₂]²⁺ (ii) [Ni(H₂O)₄(en)]²⁺ and (iii) [Ni(en)₃]²⁺ is
Not quite — the answer is C.
en is a stronger field ligand than H₂O, so the crystal field splitting Δo (and hence the energy absorbed) increases with the number of en ligands. [Ni(en)₃]²⁺ (three en) > [Ni(H₂O)₂(en)₂]²⁺ (two en) > [Ni(H₂O)₄(en)]²⁺ (one en). The reverse order confuses absorbed energy with the wavelength absorbed.
Q30NEET 2022
Compound X on reaction with O₃ followed by Zn/H₂O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products. The compound X is
Not quite — the answer is A.
Joining HCHO (CH₂=) and (CH₃)₂CH–CHO (=CH–CH(CH₃)₂) across a C=C gives CH₂=CH–CH(CH₃)₂, i.e. 3-methylbut-1-ene. 2-Methylbut-1-ene would give HCHO and butan-2-one, and 2-methylbut-2-ene gives acetone and acetaldehyde.
Q31NEET 2022
3O₂(g) ⇌ 2O₃(g) for the above reaction at 298 K, Kc is found to be 3.0 × 10⁻⁵⁹. If the concentration of O₂ at equilibrium is 0.040 M then concentration of O₃ in M is
Not quite — the answer is A.
Kc = [O₃]²/[O₂]³, so [O₃]² = 3.0 × 10⁻⁵⁹ × (0.040)³ = 3.0 × 10⁻⁵⁹ × 6.4 × 10⁻⁵ = 1.92 × 10⁻⁶³. Taking the square root, [O₃] = 4.38 × 10⁻³² M. 1.9 × 10⁻⁶³ is [O₃]² without the square root.
Q32NEET 2022
Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Aldol condensation then dehydration: acetone with itself gives (CH₃)₂C=CHCOCH₃ (mesityl oxide); the acetone enolate attacking 2-pentanone gives CH₃COCH=C(CH₃)CH₂CH₂CH₃; the C-3 enolate of 2-pentanone attacking acetone gives (CH₃)₂C=C(C₂H₅)COCH₃. CH₃CH₂COC(CH₃)=C(C₂H₅)₂ contains an ethyl ketone unit that would need 3-pentanone, so it cannot form from these reactants.
Q33NEET 2022
In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO₄ oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is form
Not quite — the answer is A.
In neutral or faintly alkaline solution: 2MnO₄⁻ + I⁻ + H₂O → 2MnO₂ + IO₃⁻ + 2OH⁻. Mn goes from +7 in MnO₄⁻ to +4 in MnO₂ (a 3-electron change). +6 is the state in manganate, not permanganate.
Chemistry: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 13 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
13 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2022
Match List-I with List-II. List - I (Hydrides): (a) MgH₂ (b) GeH₄ (c) B₂H₆ (d) HF List - II (Nature): (i) Electron precise (ii) Electron deficient (iii) Electron rich (iv) Ionic Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
MgH₂ is a saline (ionic) hydride; GeH₄ (group 14) has exactly enough electrons for normal bonds, so it is electron precise; B₂H₆ (group 13) is electron deficient; HF (group 17) carries lone pairs and is electron rich. This gives (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii).
Q2NEET 2022
Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Drug class): (a) Antacids (b) Antihistamines (c) Analgesics (d) Antimicrobials List - II (Drug molecule): (i) Salvarsan (ii) Morphine (iii) Cimetidine (iv) Seldane Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Cimetidine is an antacid (H₂-receptor blocker), Seldane (terfenadine) is an antihistamine, morphine is a narcotic analgesic, and Salvarsan (arsphenamine) is an antimicrobial used against syphilis. So (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).
Q3NEET 2022
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells. Reason (R) : In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The assertion describes a Schottky defect, where equal numbers of cations and anions are missing, so the solid stays neutral even though cations are absent. The reason correctly describes a Frenkel defect (a cation moved to an interstitial site). Both are true, but the Frenkel defect does not explain the Schottky case where ions are actually missing.
Q4NEET 2022
Choose the correct statement:
Not quite — the answer is C.
In diamond each carbon is sp³ bonded to four others in a three-dimensional network; in graphite each carbon is sp² bonded within flat hexagonal layers. Both are covalent, only graphite is layered (two-dimensional), and only graphite is a dry lubricant.
Q5NEET 2022
Identify the incorrect statement from the following
Not quite — the answer is B.
KO₂ is potassium superoxide, containing the O₂⁻ ion, so K is +1, not +4. Alkali metals do give hydroxides with water, their ionisation enthalpy decreases down the group, and Li is the strongest reducing agent in aqueous solution (most negative E°) due to its high hydration enthalpy.
Q6NEET 2022
Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton's Law of partial pressure? Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture where pᵢ = partial pressure of iᵗʰ gas χᵢ = mole fraction of iᵗʰ gas in gaseous mixture pᵢ° = pressure of iᵗʰ gas in pure state
Not quite — the answer is D.
Dalton's law states p = p₁ + p₂ + p₃, and each partial pressure is nᵢRT/V = χᵢp. The relation pᵢ = χᵢpᵢ° is Raoult's law for vapour pressure over a solution, not Dalton's law.
Q7NEET 2022
Given below ae two statements Statement I: In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is in the order Al³⁺ > Ba²⁺ > Na⁺ Statement II: In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three given salts is in the order NaCl > Na₂SO₄ > Na₃PO₄ In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Not quite — the answer is C.
By the Hardy–Schulze rule, coagulating power rises with the charge of the oppositely charged ion. For a negative sol the cations rank Al³⁺ > Ba²⁺ > Na⁺, so Statement I is correct. For a positive sol the anions rank PO₄³⁻ > SO₄²⁻ > Cl⁻, so the order should be Na₃PO₄ > Na₂SO₄ > NaCl and Statement II is incorrect.
Q8NEET 2022
Match List - I with List - II List - I: (a) Li (b) Na (c) KOH (d) Cs List - II: (i) absorbent for carbon dioxide (ii) electrochemical cells (iii) coolant in fast breeder reactors (iv) photoelectric cell Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Lithium is used in electrochemical cells (batteries), liquid sodium as a coolant in fast breeder reactors, KOH as an absorbent for CO₂, and caesium (lowest ionisation enthalpy) in photoelectric cells. So (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv).
Q9NEET 2022
Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Thermosetting polymers form extensive cross-links on heating and become permanently hard and infusible, so they cannot be remoulded or reused. Elastomers do have weak forces between chains, fibres have high tensile strength, and thermoplastics soften and harden repeatedly.
Q10NEET 2022
A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27°C. (Assume O₂ gas is behaving ideally). The pressure inside the flask in bar is (Given R = 0.0831 L bar K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)
Not quite — the answer is D.
n = 64/32 = 2 mol, T = 300 K. p = nRT/V = 2 × 0.0831 × 300 / 10.0 = 4.986 bar, matching 4.9 bar. 49.8 and 498.6 result from slips in the volume or decimal place.
Q11NEET 2022
The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of: (a) particulate matter (b) ozone (c) hydrocarbons (d) hydrogen peroxide Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
The oxidation of SO₂ to SO₃, which makes sulphur oxide pollution worse (acid rain), is catalysed by particulate matter and promoted by oxidants such as ozone and hydrogen peroxide. Hydrocarbons are not listed among these promoters, so the answer is particulate matter, ozone and hydrogen peroxide.
Q12NEET 2022
Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edge length of 3.608 × 10⁻⁸ cm. The density of copper is 8.92 g cm⁻³. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.
Not quite — the answer is A.
For fcc Z = 4, and M = ρa³N_A/Z. a³ = (3.608 × 10⁻⁸)³ = 4.697 × 10⁻²³ cm³; M = 8.92 × 4.697 × 10⁻²³ × 6.022 × 10²³ / 4 = 252.3/4 = 63.1 g mol⁻¹. Using Z = 8 by mistake would give half this value, 31.55.
Q13NEET 2022
Match List - I with List - II. List - I (Ores): (a) Haematite (b) Magnetite (c) Calamine (d) Kaolinite List - II (Composition): (i) Fe₃O₄ (ii) ZnCO₃ (iii) Fe₂O₃ (iv) [Al₂(OH)₄Si₂O₅] Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Haematite is Fe₂O₃, magnetite is Fe₃O₄, calamine is ZnCO₃ and kaolinite is the clay [Al₂(OH)₄Si₂O₅]. So (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv); swapping the two iron oxides is the main trap.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2022 Chemistry
- Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids4 Q
- Hydrocarbons2 Q
- Coordination Compounds2 Q
- The d- and f-Block Elements2 Q
- Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure2 Q
- Haloalkanes and Haloarenes2 Q
- Structure of Atom2 Q
- Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques2 Q
- Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers2 Q
- Electrochemistry2 Q
- Amines2 Q
- Equilibrium2 Q
- Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties1 Q
- Biomolecules1 Q
- Solutions1 Q
- Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry1 Q
- Chemical Kinetics1 Q
NEET 2022 Biology questions
86 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2022
Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?
Not quite — the answer is B.
National parks protect wildlife in its natural habitat, so they are an in situ method. In vitro fertilisation, micropropagation (tissue culture) and cryopreservation all keep or propagate organisms away from their natural habitat, which is ex situ conservation.
Q2NEET 2022
Identify the correct set of statements: (a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea (b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin (c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves (d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration (e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Tendrils of cucumber and pumpkin come from axillary buds, Opuntia has a flattened green phylloclade, Rhizophora has upward-growing pneumatophores for oxygen, and runners/stolons of grasses and strawberry spread vegetatively. Statement (a) is wrong because the thorns of Citrus and Bougainvillea are modified axillary buds (stem), not leaflets.
Q3NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes. Statement II : Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Decomposition is the breakdown of detritus into simpler inorganic substances by decomposers, so Statement I is true. Detritus rich in lignin and chitin decomposes slowly; decomposition is faster when detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substances like sugars, so Statement II is false.
Q4NEET 2022
Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Carrageen is a hydrocolloid obtained from red algae (Rhodophyceae), while algin comes from brown algae (Phaeophyceae). Including Phaeophyceae confuses carrageen with algin.
Q5NEET 2022
Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Pisum sativum (pea, family Fabaceae) has vexillary (papilionaceous) aestivation and diadelphous stamens (9+1). Colchicum and Allium are monocots of Liliaceae with free tepals and epiphyllous stamens, and Solanum nigrum has valvate petals with epipetalous stamens.
Q6NEET 2022
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Ulothrix is a green alga that stores starch, so pairing it with mannitol is wrong; mannitol and laminarin are reserve foods of brown algae. Ectocarpus (brown alga) has fucoxanthin, Porphyra (red alga) stores floridean starch, and Volvox (green alga) stores starch.
Q7NEET 2022
The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as:
Not quite — the answer is A.
The ribosome exists as separate large and small subunits in its inactive state, and translation of an mRNA begins when the small subunit encounters the mRNA. The large subunit joins only later, after the initiation complex has formed on the small subunit.
Q8NEET 2022
Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Pairing (synapsis) of homologous chromosomes happens only in prophase I of meiosis and never in mitosis. Condensation of chromatids, movement of centrioles to the poles and attachment of spindle fibres to kinetochores are all normal events of mitosis.
Q9NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I : The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₄ plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells. Statement II : Mesophyll cells of C₄ plants lack RuBisCo enzyme. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
In C₄ plants the primary CO₂ acceptor is phosphoenolpyruvate, carboxylated by PEP carboxylase in mesophyll cells. RuBisCO is absent from the mesophyll and is confined to bundle sheath cells, where the Calvin cycle runs, so both statements are correct.
Q10NEET 2022
Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:
Not quite — the answer is B.
In chemiosmosis, ATP is made when the proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane breaks down as protons flow through CF₀ back to the stroma, and NADP⁺ is reduced on the stroma side. There is no 'electron gradient' whose breakdown releases energy; the gradient is of protons, so that statement is the one that is not true.
Q11NEET 2022
Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Habitat loss and fragmentation, over-exploitation, alien species invasions and co-extinctions are the four major causes (the 'Evil Quartet') of biodiversity loss. They do not cause population explosion, and competition and natality are population attributes, not consequences of these threats.
Q12NEET 2022
What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?
Not quite — the answer is C.
In glycolysis 2 ATP are used and 4 ATP are formed by substrate-level phosphorylation, so the net gain is 2 ATP per glucose converted to two pyruvate (besides 2 NADH). Four is the gross yield, not the net gain.
Q13NEET 2022
Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Heterophylly (different leaf forms in juvenile and mature plants or in different environments) is the textbook example of plasticity, seen in cotton, coriander, larkspur and buttercup. Maize is not cited as showing such plasticity.
Q14NEET 2022
DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Variation at the DNA level (DNA polymorphism, e.g. repetitive and VNTR sequences) is the basis of both genetic mapping of the human genome and DNA fingerprinting. Translation has nothing to do with polymorphism, and choosing only one technique leaves out the other.
Q15NEET 2022
XO type of sex determination can be found in :
Not quite — the answer is C.
In grasshoppers males have only one X chromosome (XO) and females XX, which is XO-type sex determination. Drosophila and monkeys (mammals) have XY type, and birds have ZW type.
Q16NEET 2022
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification. Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
PCR is indeed used to amplify DNA, and the ampicillin-resistance gene is a selectable marker used to pick out transformed cells. Both statements are true, but the use of a selectable marker does not explain DNA amplification by PCR.
Q17NEET 2022
The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to:
Not quite — the answer is B.
The gaseous plant growth regulator is ethylene, which promotes root growth and root-hair formation, increasing the absorbing surface. Speeding up malting is done by gibberellins, overcoming apical dominance by cytokinins, and killing dicot weeds by the auxin 2,4-D.
Q18NEET 2022
Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of:
Not quite — the answer is C.
The exoskeleton of arthropods is made of chitin, a polysaccharide of N-acetylglucosamine units. Glucosamine is only the building unit, while cutin and cellulose are plant materials.
Q19NEET 2022
Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements: (a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin (b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active (c) Histone octamer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome (d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine (e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Euchromatin is loosely packed (a), the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer (c), and histones are rich in the basic amino acids lysine and arginine (d). Heterochromatin is densely packed and transcriptionally inactive, and a typical nucleosome contains about 200 bp of DNA, not 400 bp.
Q20NEET 2022
Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?
Not quite — the answer is C.
In predation the predator benefits and the prey is harmed (+/−), so it is wrong to say both interacting species are negatively affected; that describes competition. Predation does help maintain species diversity, keeps prey populations in check for ecological balance, and over-exploitation by predators can drive a prey species to extinction.
Q21NEET 2022
The flowers are Zygomorphic in : (a) Mustard (b) Gulmohar (c) Cassia (d) Datura (e) Chilly Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Zygomorphic flowers can be divided into two similar halves in only one vertical plane, as in pea, gulmohur, bean and Cassia. Mustard, Datura and chilli have actinomorphic (radially symmetrical) flowers.
Q22NEET 2022
Read the following statements about the vascular bundles: (a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii. (b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium (c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem (d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem (e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
All five statements are correct: roots have radial bundles with xylem and phloem on alternate radii; conjoint closed bundles (monocot stem) lack cambium; open bundles have cambium between xylem and phloem; dicot stems have endarch protoxylem; and monocot roots are usually polyarch with more than six xylem bundles.
Q23NEET 2022
Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Among insects the dominant pollinating agents are bees, not moths and butterflies, so that statement is incorrect. Water pollination is indeed rare, wind is the commonest abiotic agent, and flowers such as Amorphophallus produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles.
Q24NEET 2022
Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?
Not quite — the answer is C.
In gel electrophoresis DNA is stained with ethidium bromide and seen as bright orange bands under UV light, and cutting out and extracting the bands is called elution. A chromogenic substrate giving blue colour is used in blue-white screening of recombinant colonies (β-galactosidase), not to visualise DNA bands on a gel.
Q25NEET 2022
Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Ethylene promotes female flowers in cucumber, which increases the number of fruits and hence the yield. Gibberellins tend to promote maleness, while ABA and cytokinin do not have this effect.
Q26NEET 2022
What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?
Not quite — the answer is D.
In fermentation glucose is only partially broken down, and less than 7% of the energy in glucose is released, part of which is trapped as ATP. Higher percentages wrongly suggest more complete oxidation, which happens only in aerobic respiration.
Q27NEET 2022
In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to : (a) secretion of secondary metabolities and their deposition in the lumen of vessels. (b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem. (c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem. (d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem. (e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is A.
The dark, insect-resistant heartwood forms because organic compounds such as tannins, resins, oils, gums, aromatic substances and essential oils (secondary metabolites) are deposited in the central or innermost layers of the stem, filling the lumen of vessels. Deposition in the peripheral or outer layers describes the region of sapwood/bark, and heartwood contains dead, non-functional elements, not active xylem.
Q28NEET 2022
The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Recombination nodules appear on the synaptonemal complex in pachytene and mark the sites where crossing over between non-sister chromatids takes place. The synaptonemal complex itself and the bivalent form earlier (zygotene), and terminalisation occurs later in diakinesis.
Q29NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance. Statement II : Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea and from them proposed the laws of inheritance. The seven characters were seed shape, seed colour, flower colour, pod shape, pod colour, flower position and stem height, which is exactly the list in Statement II, so both are correct.
Q30NEET 2022
Transposons can be used during which one of the following?
Not quite — the answer is B.
In RNA interference (gene silencing) the complementary dsRNA that silences a specific mRNA can come from RNA viruses or from mobile genetic elements (transposons) that replicate via an RNA intermediate. Transposons are not used in PCR, autoradiography or sequencing.
Q31NEET 2022
While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (−) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one species and (−) for another species involved in the interaction?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Predation benefits the predator (+) and harms the prey (−). Amensalism is 0/−, commensalism is +/0, and competition is −/− for both species.
Q32NEET 2022
Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits: List - I List - II (a) Spirogyra (i) Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highly reduced male or female gametophyte (b) Fern (ii) Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte (c) Funaria (iii) Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with reduced gametophyte called prothallus (d) Cycas (iv) Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte alternating with partially dependent multicellular sporophyte Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Spirogyra is haplontic with a dominant free-living haploid gametophyte; ferns have a dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with a small gametophyte, the prothallus; Funaria (moss) has a dominant leafy haploid gametophyte with a partially dependent sporophyte; and Cycas is a vascular plant with a dominant sporophyte and highly reduced gametophytes.
Q33NEET 2022
Match List I with List II. List - I List - II (a) Metacentric chromosome (i) Centromere situated close to the end forming one extremely short and one very long arms (b) Acrocentric chromosome (ii) Centromere at the terminal end (c) Submetacentric (iii) Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms of chromosomes (d) Telocentric chromosome (iv) Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one shorter arm and one longer arm Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
A metacentric chromosome has a middle centromere with two equal arms; acrocentric has it very close to one end, giving one extremely short and one very long arm; submetacentric has it slightly away from the middle; and telocentric has a terminal centromere.
Q34NEET 2022
Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant Mendelian disorder. Sickle-cell anaemia and thalassemia are autosomal recessive, and haemophilia is X-linked recessive.
Q35NEET 2022
Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Rocks are the natural reservoir of phosphorus, and weathering of rocks releases phosphates into the soil, speeding up the phosphorus cycle. Unlike carbon, phosphorus has no significant gaseous phase, so burning fossil fuels and volcanic gases do not drive this cycle.
Q36NEET 2022
In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme?
Not quite — the answer is B.
A palindrome reads the same 5'→3' on both strands; 5'GAATTC3'/3'CTTAAG5' is such a sequence and is the recognition site of EcoRI. In the other pairs the bottom strand read 5'→3' is not the same as the top strand, so they are not palindromes.
Q37NEET 2022
Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements : (a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid (b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more C=C bonds (c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter (d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents (e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Gingelly oil has a low melting point and stays liquid in winter, lipids are insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents, and a fatty acid esterified with glycerol forms a monoglyceride, so (c), (d) and (e) are correct. Lecithin is a phospholipid, not a glycolipid, and saturated fatty acids have no C=C double bonds.
Q38NEET 2022
what is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C₄ plants?
Not quite — the answer is B.
The large bundle sheath cells of C₄ plants (Kranz anatomy) contain many chloroplasts and are the site of the Calvin cycle, where CO₂ released from C₄ acids is fixed by RuBisCO. They do not support photorespiration; C₄ plants largely avoid photorespiration.
Q39NEET 2022
If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called as :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In the Human Genome Project, sequencing the whole genome without prior knowledge of genes and later assigning functions to different segments is called sequence annotation. Expressed sequence tags is the other approach, which identifies only genes that are expressed as RNA.
Q40NEET 2022
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Mendel's law of independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome. Reason (R) : Closely located genes assort independently. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Genes located close together on the same chromosome are linked and tend to be inherited together, so they do not assort independently; the Assertion is correct. The Reason, which says closely located genes assort independently, is false.
Q41NEET 2022
The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood. (a) It is also called as the earlywood (b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels (c) It is lighter in colour (d) The springwood along with autumn wood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings (e) It has lower density Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Springwood (earlywood) is formed when the cambium is very active, producing xylem elements with wide vessels; it is lighter in colour and has lower density, and with autumn wood it forms the annual rings. Statement (b) is wrong because spring season vessels are wide, not narrow.
Q42NEET 2022
In-situ conservation refers to :
Not quite — the answer is A.
In situ conservation protects the whole ecosystem in which species live, through biodiversity hotspots, national parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves. It is not limited to high-risk or endangered species, and extinct species cannot be conserved at all.
Q43NEET 2022
In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Birds have a crop and a gizzard as additional chambers of the digestive tract; Pavo (peacock), Psittacula (parrot) and Corvus (crow) are all birds. The other groups each include non-birds such as Chameleon, Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bungarus, Catla and Crocodilus.
Q44NEET 2022
If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?
Not quite — the answer is A.
The distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm = 0.34 × 10⁻⁹ m. Number of base pairs = 1.1 m ÷ (0.34 × 10⁻⁹ m) ≈ 3.2 × 10⁹, i.e. about 3.3 × 10⁹ bp; 6.6 × 10⁹ is the number of bases (or bp of a diploid cell), not the base pairs in this molecule.
Q45NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies. Statement II : Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
In autoimmune disorders the body's defence mechanism treats its own cells as foreign and attacks them, so Statement I is correct. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the body does attack self cells, so Statement II is incorrect.
Q46NEET 2022
Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis? (a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population (d) It is controlled by the Luteinising Hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary (e) It is initiated at puberty Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Spermatids differentiate into sperms only after meiosis is complete (b), sperm production comes from a continuously dividing population of spermatogonia (c), and spermatogenesis starts at puberty (e); in oogenesis meiosis II is completed only after sperm entry and the process begins in the foetus. Haploid gamete formation and control by LH and FSH are common to both processes.
Q47NEET 2022
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures. Reason (R) : Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Osteoporosis is an age-related disorder with decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures, so the Assertion is correct. Its common cause is decreased, not increased, levels of estrogen, so the Reason is false.
Q48NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence. Statement II : Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Each restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence, and it cuts each strand a little away from the centre of the palindrome but between the same two bases on the opposite strands, producing sticky ends. Both statements are correct.
Q49NEET 2022
Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Lippes loop is a non-medicated intrauterine device. Copper-releasing IUDs are CuT, Cu7 and Multiload 375, while cervical caps and vaults are barrier methods, not IUDs.
Q50NEET 2022
Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ____________ ml of O₂ to the tissues.
Not quite — the answer is B.
Under normal physiological conditions every 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers about 5 ml of O₂ to the tissues. The value 4 ml is the CO₂ delivered by 100 ml of deoxygenated blood to the alveoli.
Q51NEET 2022
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates. Reason (R) : Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Vertebrates have a notochord only in the embryo, and it is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in the adult; chordates such as urochordates and cephalochordates keep the notochord and lack a vertebral column. Hence all vertebrates are chordates but not all chordates are vertebrates, and the Reason explains the Assertion.
Q52NEET 2022
Which of the following is not a connective tissue?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Neuroglia are supporting cells of neural tissue. Blood is a fluid connective tissue, adipose tissue is a loose connective tissue, and cartilage is a specialised connective tissue.
Q53NEET 2022
Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Birds, reptiles, land snails and insects are uricotelic and excrete uric acid as a pellet or paste with minimum water loss; Pavo (peacock) is a bird. Ornithorhynchus (a mammal) and Salamandra (an amphibian) are ureotelic, and Hippocampus (a bony fish) is ammonotelic.
Q54NEET 2022
Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?
Not quite — the answer is B.
DNA replication occurs only once, in the S phase of interphase before meiosis I; there is no S phase before meiosis II. Meiosis does have two stages, pairing and recombination occur in meiosis I, and four haploid cells result at the end of meiosis II.
Q55NEET 2022
In an E. Coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?
Not quite — the answer is C.
If the repressor made by the mutated i gene cannot bind the inducer, lactose cannot inactivate it; the repressor stays on the operator, RNA polymerase cannot transcribe the operon, and so z, y and a are not transcribed or translated. Transcription of z, y and a would need an inducible repressor, which is lost here.
Q56NEET 2022
Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Arthritis is inflammation of joints. Tetany results from low, not high, Ca²⁺ in body fluid; myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder, not a genetic one; and muscular dystrophy is a genetic, not autoimmune, disorder.
Q57NEET 2022
Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A :
Not quite — the answer is A.
Cyclosporin A, used as an immunosuppressant in organ transplant patients, is produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum. Aspergillus niger produces citric acid, Clostridium butylicum butyric acid, and Streptococcus produces streptokinase (Saccharomyces is the 'cerevisiae' species).
Q58NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size. Statement II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
Mycoplasma are the smallest living cells and can pass through filters smaller than 1 micron. They completely lack a cell wall, so Statement II is incorrect.
Q59NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I : The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins. Statement II : Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is D.
The coagulum (clot) is a network of threads called fibrins, formed from fibrinogen by thrombin; thrombin is the enzyme, not the threads. The spleen is called the graveyard of RBCs, so only Statement II is correct.
Q60NEET 2022
A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to product maltose. If the formula for glucose is C₆H₁₂O₆ then what is the formula for maltose?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Maltose forms when two glucose molecules (C₆H₁₂O₆) are joined by a glycosidic bond with the loss of one water molecule: 2 C₆H₁₂O₆ − H₂O = C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁. Simply doubling glucose gives C₁₂H₂₄O₁₂, which ignores the water removed.
Q61NEET 2022
Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?
Not quite — the answer is C.
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, including any endoplasmic reticulum, so the statement that only RER is present in prokaryotes is incorrect. RER bears ribosomes, SER lacks them, and SER is the major site of lipid synthesis.
Q62NEET 2022
Tegmina in cockroach, arises from
Not quite — the answer is B.
In cockroach the first pair of wings, the leathery tegmina, arise from the mesothorax, and the second pair of membranous wings from the metathorax. The prothorax bears no wings.
Q63NEET 2022
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation. Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is C.
The release of sperms from the Sertoli cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation, so Statement I is correct. Spermiogenesis is the transformation of spermatids into sperms; formation of sperms from spermatogonia is spermatogenesis, so Statement II is incorrect.
Q64NEET 2022
If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the population is ___________ individuals per Drosophila per week.
Not quite — the answer is A.
Death rate = number of deaths ÷ population size per unit time = 8 ÷ 80 = 0.1 individuals per Drosophila per week. 10 is the percentage, not the per-individual rate.
Q65NEET 2022
Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to
Not quite — the answer is B.
When more individuals acquire a character value other than the mean, the population mean shifts in one direction, which is directional selection. Stabilising selection favours the mean value, and disruptive selection favours both extremes.
Q66NEET 2022
Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The conducting part (nose to terminal bronchioles) transports air, clears it of foreign particles, humidifies it and brings it to body temperature. Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ takes place in the respiratory or exchange part, the alveoli, not in the conducting part.
Q67NEET 2022
At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Oogenesis is initiated during embryonic (foetal) development, when oogonia form inside the foetal ovary and enter meiosis I as primary oocytes. It is not started at birth, puberty or adulthood; puberty only resumes the process.
Q68NEET 2022
In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because:
Not quite — the answer is D.
In ADA gene therapy, the patient's lymphocytes are grown in culture, the functional ADA cDNA is introduced with a retroviral vector, and the cells are returned to the patient. Because these lymphocytes are not immortal, they die and infusions must be repeated periodically; a permanent cure needs the gene to be put into early embryonic or marrow stem cells.
Q69NEET 2022
Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis :
Not quite — the answer is B.
In mitosis spindle fibres attach to the kinetochores, small disc-shaped structures at the surface of the centromere, not to the centromere itself, so that statement is the incorrect one. Chromosomes do line up at the equator in metaphase, centromeres split at anaphase, and chromosomes decondense at telophase.
Q70NEET 2022
Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called :
Not quite — the answer is B.
The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by detritivores such as earthworms is called fragmentation, the first step of decomposition. Catabolism is the enzymatic breakdown into simpler inorganic substances and humification is the formation of humus.
Q71NEET 2022
If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness?
Not quite — the answer is D.
The man received his only X chromosome from his colour-blind mother, so he is colour blind (XᶜY), and the colour-blind woman is XᶜXᶜ. Every daughter (XᶜXᶜ) and every son (XᶜY) will be colour blind, so the chance is 100%.
Q72NEET 2022
Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.
Not quite — the answer is D.
Acquired immunity is pathogen-specific and develops during life, with a primary response on first encounter and an amplified anamnestic (secondary) response from memory on later encounters. A non-specific defence present at birth describes innate immunity, so that statement is incorrect.
Q73NEET 2022
Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statements is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin? (a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide (b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them. (c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs. (d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone. (e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
For genetically engineered insulin, Eli Lilly prepared DNA sequences for the A and B chains, produced them separately in E. coli, extracted them and joined them by disulphide bonds. The C-peptide and the processing of pro-insulin concern insulin made in the body, while insulin from cattle and pigs and the allergic reactions it caused are about animal insulin, not the genetically engineered product.
Q74NEET 2022
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Not quite — the answer is C.
During joint diastole the tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open, so blood flows freely from the atria into the ventricles. The action potential that starts atrial contraction comes from the SA node, not the AV node; and a rise in ventricular pressure closes the atrioventricular valves and opens the semilunar valves.
Q75NEET 2022
Match List-I with List-II: List - I (Biological Molecules) List - II (Biological functions) (a) Glycogen (i) Hormone (b) Globulin (ii) Biocatalyst (c) Steroids (iii) Antibody (d) Thrombin (iv) Storage product Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Glycogen is a storage polysaccharide, globulins include antibodies (immunoglobulins), some steroids such as sex hormones and cortisol are hormones, and thrombin is an enzyme (biocatalyst) in blood clotting.
Q76NEET 2022
Ten E.coli cells with ¹⁵N-dsDNA are incubated in medium containing ¹⁴N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from ¹⁵N?
Not quite — the answer is C.
E. coli divides every 20 minutes, so in 60 minutes there are 3 generations and 10 cells become 10 × 2³ = 80 cells. By semiconservative replication the 20 original ¹⁵N strands stay in 20 hybrid cells, so 80 − 20 = 60 cells have DNA completely free of ¹⁵N.
Q77NEET 2022
The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Recombination frequency reflects distance: a–c = 5 and c–b = 15 add up to a–b = 20, so c lies between a and b. b–d = 9, c–d = 24 (15 + 9) and a–d = 29 (20 + 9) place d beyond b, giving the order a, c, b, d.
Q78NEET 2022
Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone? (a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption (b) Decreases Ca²⁺ level in blood (c) Reabsorption of Ca²⁺ by renal tubules (d) Decreases the absorption of Ca²⁺ from digested food (e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Parathyroid hormone raises blood Ca²⁺: it stimulates bone resorption, increases reabsorption of Ca²⁺ by renal tubules and increases absorption of Ca²⁺ from digested food. So decreasing blood Ca²⁺ (b), decreasing Ca²⁺ absorption (d) and increasing carbohydrate metabolism (e) are not its effects.
Q79NEET 2022
Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?
Not quite — the answer is D.
A cloning vector should have an origin of replication, a selectable marker and a single recognition site for a given restriction enzyme. Two or more recognition sites for the same enzyme would cut the vector into several fragments and complicate cloning, so they are not desirable.
Q80NEET 2022
Which of the following statements is not true?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Flippers of penguins (birds) and dolphins (mammals) have similar function but evolved independently, so they are analogous, not homologous, organs; that statement is not true. Analogous structures do arise by convergent evolution, sweet potato (root) and potato (stem) are an example of analogy, and homology indicates common ancestry.
Q81NEET 2022
Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :
Not quite — the answer is D.
Transmission across an electrical synapse, where the membranes are very close and current flows directly between neurons, is faster than across a chemical synapse, which relies on release and diffusion of neurotransmitters. So the claim that chemical synapses are always faster is incorrect.
Q82NEET 2022
Match List - I with List - II List - I List - II (a) Bronchioles (i) Dense Regular Connective Tissue (b) Goblet Cell (ii) Loose Connective Tissue (c) Tendons (iii) Glandular Tissue (d) Adipose Tissue (iv) Ciliated Epithelium Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Bronchioles are lined by ciliated epithelium, goblet cells are unicellular glandular tissue, tendons are dense regular connective tissue, and adipose tissue is a loose connective tissue.
Q83NEET 2022
Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions. List - I List - II (a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation and implantation (b) Contraceptive Pills (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus (c) Intra Uterine Devices (iii) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition (d) Lactational Amenorrhea (iv) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Diaphragms cover the cervix and block sperm entry; oral pills inhibit ovulation and implantation; IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus; and lactational amenorrhoea is the absence of menstruation and ovulation during intense breastfeeding after parturition.
Q84NEET 2022
Which of the following is a correct statement?
Not quite — the answer is A.
Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic autotrophs placed in Kingdom Monera. Bacteria are not exclusively heterotrophic (many are autotrophs), slime moulds are saprophytic protists, and Mycoplasma lack a cell wall.
Q85NEET 2022
Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Cartilage is present between adjacent bones of the vertebral column (intervertebral discs), as well as at the tip of the nose, outer ear and limb joints. Intercalated discs join cardiac muscle cells, and areolar tissue and smooth muscle are not found there.
Q86NEET 2022
Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium :
Not quite — the answer is B.
Penicillium, a sac fungus, reproduces asexually by conidia, spores produced exogenously on conidiophores. Zoospores occur in some algae and lower fungi, gemmules in sponges and buds in yeast and Hydra.
Biology: not in the current NEET syllabus
These 11 questions are from topics NCERT dropped in its 2023 revision. Shown for completeness; you can skip them for NEET 2027.
11 questions. Tap an option to check your answer.
Q1NEET 2022
Match List-I with List-II List - I List - II (a) Manganese (i) Activates the enzyme catalase (b) Magnesium (ii) Required for pollen germination (c) Boron (iii) Activates enzymes of respiration (d) Iron (iv) Functions in splitting of water during photosynthesis Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Manganese is needed for splitting of water during photosynthesis, magnesium activates enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis, boron is required for pollen germination, and iron activates catalase.
Q2NEET 2022
"Girdling Experiment" was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:
Not quite — the answer is B.
In a girdling experiment a ring of bark (including phloem) is removed; the bark above the ring swells with accumulated food and the root eventually starves. This shows that food is translocated through the phloem, while water continues to move up through the intact xylem.
Q3NEET 2022
Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway?
Not quite — the answer is C.
The apoplastic pathway runs through cell walls and intercellular spaces without crossing membranes and offers no barrier until the Casparian strip. Movement aided by cytoplasmic streaming happens in the symplast, through the cytoplasm and plasmodesmata, not in the apoplast.
Q4NEET 2022
The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is:
Not quite — the answer is C.
An electrostatic precipitator charges dust particles with high-voltage electrode wires and collects them on earthed plates, removing over 99% of particulate matter from thermal power plant exhaust. A catalytic converter treats vehicle exhaust gases, an incinerator burns waste, and an STP treats sewage.
Q5NEET 2022
Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Frankia is the actinomycete that forms nitrogen-fixing root nodules on the non-leguminous plant Alnus. Rhizobium nodulates legumes, while Rhodospirillum and Beijerinckia are free-living nitrogen fixers.
Q6NEET 2022
Addition of more solutes in a given solution will:
Not quite — the answer is B.
Pure water has the highest water potential (zero); dissolving solutes gives a negative solute potential, so adding more solute lowers the water potential further. It cannot raise it or make it zero.
Q7NEET 2022
The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false?
Not quite — the answer is B.
Diesel engines had to be converted or replaced to run on CNG, so saying the same diesel engine is used is false. CNG does burn more efficiently, is cheaper than diesel, and cannot be siphoned off or adulterated.
Q8NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood. Statement II : Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is A.
Fatty acids and glycerol are insoluble and cannot be absorbed directly into blood; they are first packed into micelles and then reformed into chylomicrons in the intestinal cells. Chylomicrons pass into the lacteals, the lymph vessels of villi, and finally reach the blood, so both statements are correct.
Q9NEET 2022
Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?
Not quite — the answer is D.
Saliva lubricates the oral cavity, its lysozyme controls bacteria, and salivary amylase digests starch, a complex carbohydrate, into maltose. Saliva has no enzymes to digest disaccharides; these are digested in the small intestine.
Q10NEET 2022
Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called:
Not quite — the answer is C.
Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins, minerals, proteins or healthier fats is biofortification. Biomagnification and bioaccumulation refer to build-up of toxic substances, and bioremediation is cleaning pollutants with organisms.
Q11NEET 2022
Given below are two statements: Statement I : In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles. Statement II : Particulate matter (PM 2.5) cannot be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Not quite — the answer is D.
Statement I describes the electrostatic precipitator, which uses electrode wires to charge dust; a scrubber instead sprays water or lime to remove gases such as sulphur dioxide, so Statement I is incorrect. Fine particulate matter is removed by the electrostatic precipitator rather than the scrubber, so Statement II is correct.
Chapter-wise split of NEET 2022 Biology
- Molecular Basis of Inheritance7 Q
- Principles of Inheritance and Variation6 Q
- Biotechnology: Principles and Processes5 Q
- Cell Cycle and Cell Division4 Q
- Structural Organisation in Animals4 Q
- Biodiversity and Conservation3 Q
- Morphology of Flowering Plants3 Q
- Ecosystem3 Q
- Plant Kingdom3 Q
- Photosynthesis in Higher Plants3 Q
- Plant Growth and Development3 Q
- Animal Kingdom3 Q
- Organisms and Populations3 Q
- Anatomy of Flowering Plants3 Q
- Biotechnology and Its Applications3 Q
- Biomolecules3 Q
- Human Reproduction3 Q
- Biological Classification3 Q
- Respiration in Plants2 Q
- Cell: The Unit of Life2 Q
- Human Health and Disease2 Q
- Locomotion and Movement2 Q
- Reproductive Health2 Q
- Breathing and Exchange of Gases2 Q
- Body Fluids and Circulation2 Q
- Evolution2 Q
- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants1 Q
- Excretory Products and Their Elimination1 Q
- Microbes in Human Welfare1 Q
- Chemical Coordination and Integration1 Q
- Neural Control and Coordination1 Q
About this paper
How many questions from NEET 2022 are on this page?
183 questions (Physics 40, Chemistry 46, Biology 97). Questions that need a diagram we could not reproduce, or whose wording in the source was unclear, are left out.
Are these the original questions?
Yes. The questions and options are as set in the NEET 2022 paper, conducted by NTA. The answer to every question was checked by the RankUp team, and the explanations are RankUp's own.
Is NEET 2022 useful for NEET 2027?
Yes. The NEET syllabus is built on the same NCERT books. 25 questions here are on topics NCERT has since dropped; they are listed separately so you can skip them.
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